IBPS AFO Mains previous year question paper (2024)

IBPS AFO Mains previous year 2014 question paper with explanation

In this post, we have included the IBPS AFO Mains previous year question papers from 2014, 2015,2016,2017, along with detailed answers and explanations, you can get IBPS AFO Books in last years 40+ questions are asked from this book

1. In Indo-Gangetic plains, rice wheat cropping system covers about

(1) Mustard

(1) 5 m ha

(2) 10 m ha

(3) 15 m ha

(4) 20 m ha

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (4) 20 m ha

Explanation: The rice-wheat cropping system is a dominant agricultural practice in the Indo-Gangetic plains, a region that stretches across northern and eastern India, parts of Pakistan, and Bangladesh. This system is significant due to its contribution to food security in the region. According to various agricultural studies and reports, the rice-wheat cropping system in the Indo-Gangetic plains covers approximately 20 million hectares (m ha).

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Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Mustard: This option is not relevant to the question as it does not specify an area and instead mentions a different crop.
• (2) 10 m ha: While 10 million hectares would be a substantial area, it significantly underestimates the extent of the rice-wheat cropping system in the Indo-Gangetic plains.
• (3) 15 m ha: This option is closer to the correct answer but still underestimates the total area. The actual coverage is larger.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because option (4) correctly states the area covered by the rice-wheat cropping system.

The rice-wheat cropping system’s coverage of 20 million hectares underscores its importance in regional agriculture and the livelihood of millions of farmers in the Indo-Gangetic plains.

2. Which soil has the highest efficiency?

(1) Loamy soil

(2) Sandy soil

(3) Clay soil

(4) Both (1) and (2)

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) Loamy soil

Explanation: Loamy soil is considered to have the highest efficiency among the soil types listed. This is because loamy soil is a balanced mixture of sand, silt, and clay, which provides it with ideal characteristics for agriculture:

• Nutrient Retention: Loamy soil retains nutrients well, which are essential for plant growth.
• Drainage: It has good drainage properties, preventing waterlogging that can damage roots.
• Water Retention: Loamy soil retains moisture efficiently, providing a steady supply of water to plants.
• Workability: It is easier to work with compared to very sandy or clay-heavy soils, making it ideal for cultivation.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (2) Sandy soil: Sandy soil has large particles and poor nutrient retention. It drains water quickly, which can be a disadvantage in terms of water efficiency as plants may not get a consistent supply of moisture.
• (3) Clay soil: Clay soil has very small particles and tends to retain water excessively, leading to poor drainage and aeration issues. While it can hold nutrients well, the poor drainage and difficulty in working with it make it less efficient compared to loamy soil.
• (4) Both (1) and (2): This option is incorrect because sandy soil does not have the high efficiency that loamy soil has. Loamy soil alone is the most efficient among the options provided.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because loamy soil is indeed the most efficient among the types listed.

Loamy soil’s balanced properties make it the most efficient for supporting plant growth, thus making it the best choice among the options provided.

3. Magnesium is a constituent of:

(1) Nucleic Acid

(2) Enzyme system

(3) Cell wall

(4) Chlorophyll

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (4) Chlorophyll

Explanation: Magnesium is a central component of the chlorophyll molecule, which is essential for photosynthesis in plants. Chlorophyll is the pigment that gives plants their green color and plays a critical role in capturing light energy for the process of photosynthesis.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Nucleic Acid: Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) do not contain magnesium as a constituent. They are primarily composed of nucleotides, which include a phosphate group, a sugar, and a nitrogenous base.
• (2) Enzyme system: While magnesium acts as a cofactor for many enzymes and is essential for their activity, it is not a constituent of the enzymes themselves. Instead, it helps stabilize structures of enzymes and interacts with substrates during enzymatic reactions.
• (3) Cell wall: The cell wall of plants is primarily made up of cellulose, hemicellulose, and lignin. Magnesium is not a structural component of the cell wall.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because magnesium is indeed a constituent of chlorophyll.

Magnesium’s role in chlorophyll is crucial because it enables plants to perform photosynthesis, which is the process by which they convert light energy into chemical energy. This function underscores the importance of magnesium in plant biology.

4. The largest tea production state in India is:

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) Assam

(3) Meghalaya

(4) Kerala

(5) None of these

The correct answer is

(2) Assam

Explanation: Assam is the largest tea-producing state in India, contributing more than half of the country’s total tea production. The state’s climate, characterized by heavy rainfall and high humidity, along with fertile soil, makes it ideal for tea cultivation. Assam tea is renowned for its robust flavor and is a key component of many blends, including breakfast teas.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Tamil Nadu: Tamil Nadu is one of the significant tea-producing states in India, particularly known for the Nilgiri tea from the Nilgiri hills. However, its production is much lower than that of Assam.
• (4) Kerala: Kerala also produces tea, mainly from the districts of Wayanad, Idukki, and the Anamalai hills. While it is an important tea-growing region, its production volume does not surpass that of Assam.
• (3) Meghalaya: Meghalaya has some tea plantations, but it is not among the top tea-producing states in India. Its production is minimal compared to Assam.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because Assam is indeed the largest tea-producing state in India.

Assam’s dominance in tea production is well-documented and contributes significantly to both the national and global tea markets.

5. The average concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is:

(1) 0.03 ppm

(2) 30 ppm

(3) 0.3 ppm

(4) 300 ppm

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (5) None of these

Explanation: The average concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is currently about 415 parts per million (ppm) as of recent measurements. This value has been rising steadily due to human activities such as burning fossil fuels and deforestation.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) 0.03 ppm: This value is far too low. Carbon dioxide concentrations are much higher than 0.03 ppm.
• (2) 30 ppm: While this is higher than the first option, it is still significantly below the actual concentration of CO₂ in the atmosphere.
• (3) 0.3 ppm: This is also much too low. CO₂ levels are measured in the hundreds of ppm, not fractions of a ppm.
• (4) 300 ppm: This value is closer but still underestimates the current levels of CO₂ in the atmosphere. Historical data shows that the last time atmospheric CO₂ was at 300 ppm was several decades ago, before the significant increases observed in recent years.
• (5) None of these: This is the correct answer because none of the provided options accurately reflect the current average concentration of CO₂ in the atmosphere, which is around 415 ppm.

Understanding the concentration of CO₂ in the atmosphere is critical for addressing climate change, as this greenhouse gas plays a significant role in global warming and environmental changes.

6. Atmospheric layer nearest to earth Surface is

(1) Biosphere

(2) Exosphere

(3) Thermosphere

(4) Troposphere

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (4) Troposphere

Explanation: The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere and extends from the Earth’s surface up to about 8 to 15 kilometers (5 to 9 miles) high, depending on the location (thicker at the equator and thinner at the poles). It contains approximately 75% of the atmosphere’s mass and is where most of the Earth’s weather phenomena, such as clouds, rain, and storms, occur.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Biosphere: The biosphere refers to the global ecological system integrating all living beings and their relationships, including their interaction with elements of the lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere. It is not a layer of the atmosphere.
• (2) Exosphere: The exosphere is the outermost layer of the Earth’s atmosphere, extending from about 600 kilometers (373 miles) above the Earth’s surface and gradually fading into outer space. It is the farthest layer from the Earth’s surface.
• (3) Thermosphere: The thermosphere is located above the mesosphere and below the exosphere, starting around 80 kilometers (50 miles) above the Earth’s surface and extending up to about 600 kilometers (373 miles). It is characterized by high temperatures but is not the closest layer to the Earth’s surface.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because the troposphere is indeed the atmospheric layer nearest to the Earth’s surface.

The troposphere’s proximity to the Earth’s surface and its role in weather and climate make it the most dynamic layer of the atmosphere, crucial for life on Earth.

7. Impact of green house effect is:

(1) Global warming

(2) Ice melting

(3) Sea formation

(4) Sea level rise

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) Global warming

Explanation: The greenhouse effect results in the trapping of heat in the Earth’s atmosphere by greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), and water vapor. This process leads to an increase in the planet’s average surface temperature, which is referred to as global warming. Global warming is the direct impact of the greenhouse effect and is the fundamental cause of many subsequent environmental changes.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (2) Ice melting: Ice melting is a significant consequence of global warming. As temperatures rise due to the greenhouse effect, glaciers and polar ice caps melt at an accelerated rate. This is a secondary effect of global warming.
• (3) Sea formation: Sea formation is not a consequence of the greenhouse effect. This process involves geological and hydrological activities that are unrelated to the greenhouse effect or global warming.
• (4) Sea level rise: Sea level rise is another consequence of global warming. It happens due to the melting of ice and the thermal expansion of seawater as it warms. Like ice melting, sea level rise is a secondary effect resulting from global warming.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because global warming (option 1) is indeed the primary impact of the greenhouse effect.

In conclusion, global warming is the primary and direct impact of the greenhouse effect, leading to further environmental consequences such as ice melting and sea level rise.

8. Which food is designated as “Boneless meat”?

(1) Banana

(2) Potato

(3) Soybean

(4) Tapioca

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (3) Soybean

Explanation: In some contexts, especially in vegetarian or vegan cooking, soybeans are often used as a substitute for meat due to their high protein content and meat-like texture when processed. Products made from soybeans, such as tofu and tempeh, are commonly referred to as meat substitutes or meat analogs. Since soybeans can be used to create dishes with a texture and taste similar to meat, they are sometimes humorously or informally referred to as “boneless meat.”

This usage of the term “boneless meat” is not standard or widely recognized, but it may be used colloquially or within specific culinary communities to describe soybean-based products that mimic the texture and flavor of meat. Therefore, if “Soybean” is the designated answer in the given context, it could be interpreted as a playful or unconventional use of the term “boneless meat” to describe a meat substitute.

9. Soil mulch is useful in:

(1) Minimizing evaporation losses

(2) Improving aeration

(3) Improving drainage

(4) Removing weeds

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) Minimizing evaporation losses

Explanation: Soil mulch is a protective layer of material, such as straw, leaves, or plastic, spread or left on the ground around plants. One of its primary functions is to minimize evaporation losses by reducing water loss from the soil surface due to evaporation. By providing a barrier between the soil and the atmosphere, mulch helps retain moisture in the soil, thus reducing the need for frequent irrigation.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (2) Improving aeration: While mulch can indirectly improve aeration by maintaining soil moisture and preventing soil compaction, its primary function is to reduce evaporation rather than to directly improve aeration.
• (3) Improving drainage: Mulch can help regulate soil moisture levels, but it does not directly improve drainage. In fact, some types of mulch, such as organic mulches like wood chips or straw, may temporarily impede drainage until they decompose.
• (4) Removing weeds: Mulch can suppress weed growth by blocking sunlight and preventing weed seeds from germinating, but it does not actively remove existing weeds. Weed removal typically requires manual or mechanical intervention.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because soil mulch is indeed useful in minimizing evaporation losses, as explained above.

In summary, while soil mulch can have various benefits for soil health and plant growth, its primary function is to minimize evaporation losses and conserve soil moisture.

10. The depth of seeding in wheat is dependent on

(1) Length of mesocotyl

(2) Length of radical

(3) Length of coleoptiles

(4) Both (1) and (2)

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (3) Length of coleoptiles

Explanation: In wheat cultivation, the depth of seeding is primarily dependent on the length of coleoptiles. Coleoptiles are protective sheaths covering the young shoot of a grass embryo (including wheat) as it emerges from the seed. The coleoptile elongates in response to light and aids in the emergence of the seedling from the soil. The depth of seeding should be such that the coleoptile length is sufficient to reach the soil surface and allow the seedling to emerge properly.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Length of mesocotyl: The mesocotyl is a part of the embryo found in monocotyledonous plants (including wheat). However, its length is not typically considered a significant factor in determining the depth of seeding in wheat.
• (2) Length of radical: The radical is the embryonic root of a seedling, which develops into the primary root upon germination. While the radical is important for anchoring the seedling and absorbing water and nutrients, its length does not directly determine the depth of seeding in wheat.
• (4) Both (1) and (2): While the length of the mesocotyl and the radical may have some influence on the depth of seeding, the primary factor in wheat cultivation is the length of coleoptiles. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because the depth of seeding in wheat is indeed dependent on the length of coleoptiles.

In wheat farming, ensuring proper seeding depth is crucial for achieving optimal germination and establishment of the crop. Adjusting seeding depth based on the length of coleoptiles helps facilitate successful emergence and early growth of wheat seedlings.

11. The Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) falls in (1) Sunflower (2) Wheat (3) Rice (4) Jo war (5) None of these

The correct answer is (5) None of these

Explanation: Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) refers to the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that plants can use for photosynthesis, primarily consisting of light wavelengths between 400 and 700 nanometers. PAR is essential for plant growth and development as it drives the process of photosynthesis, which converts light energy into chemical energy used by plants.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Sunflower: Sunflowers, like other green plants, utilize PAR for photosynthesis. However, PAR is not specific to sunflowers but is a broad term applicable to all plants.
• (2) Wheat: Wheat, like other crops, also requires PAR for photosynthesis. However, PAR is not exclusive to wheat but is essential for the growth of all green plants.
• (3) Rice: Rice, being a plant, also utilizes PAR for photosynthesis. However, as with wheat and sunflowers, PAR is not specific to rice but is necessary for the growth of all plants.
• (4) Jowar (Sorghum): Jowar, like other crops, relies on PAR for photosynthesis. However, PAR is not limited to jowar but is essential for the growth of all plants.

While all the plants mentioned in the options require PAR for photosynthesis, PAR itself is not specific to any particular plant species. It is a fundamental aspect of light energy that supports the growth of all green plants through photosynthesis. Therefore, The correct answer is (5) None of these.

12. The origin place of soybean is

( 1) Brazil

(2) Mexico

(3) China

(4) Peru

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (3) China

Explanation: Soybean, scientifically known as Glycine max, originated in East Asia, particularly in China. It has been cultivated in China for thousands of years, with records dating back to ancient times. Soybean cultivation spread from China to other parts of East Asia, including Japan and Korea, before being introduced to other regions of the world.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Brazil: Brazil is one of the world’s leading producers of soybeans, but it is not the origin place of soybean cultivation. Soybean cultivation was introduced to Brazil much later, primarily in the 20th century.
• (4) Peru: Peru is not the origin place of soybean cultivation. While soybeans may be grown in Peru and other parts of South America, their origin is in East Asia, particularly China.
• (2) Mexico: Mexico is not the origin place of soybean cultivation. While Mexico has a rich agricultural history and cultivates various crops, soybeans are not native to Mexico.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because soybean indeed originated in China, as explained above.

In summary, China is recognized as the origin place of soybean cultivation, with the crop being domesticated and cultivated in the region for thousands of years.

13. In which of the following crops GM varieties are available for cultivation in India?

(1) Mustard

(2) Cotton

(3) Soybean

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (2) Cotton

Explanation: Bt cotton, a genetically modified variety of cotton, is the only crop for which GM varieties are legally approved and cultivated in India. Bt cotton has been widely cultivated in the country since its approval in 2002. Other crops like mustard and soybean have genetically modified varieties developed, but they have not been legally allowed for commercial cultivation in India.

14. Inflorescence in rice is known as

(1) Ear

(2) Raceme

(3) Spike

(4) Panicle

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (4) Panicle

Explanation: A panicle is a branched inflorescence with stalked flowers arranged along the branches. In rice plants, the panicle is the flowering structure that holds the individual rice flowers. It consists of a central axis with numerous branches, each bearing spikelets where the flowers are found. The panicle plays a crucial role in rice reproduction, as it contains the flowers that eventually develop into grains.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Ear: “Ear” is a term commonly used to refer to the inflorescence of cereal crops like maize (corn). It is a dense, cylindrical structure composed of spikelets. However, in the context of rice, the correct term is “panicle.”
• (2) Raceme: A raceme is an inflorescence type characterized by unbranched pedicels (flower stalks) attached to a central axis. Rice inflorescences do not typically exhibit the raceme structure.
• (3) Spike: A spike is an inflorescence type where flowers are attached directly to the central axis without stalks. While this structure may resemble some aspects of rice inflorescences, the correct term for the rice inflorescence is “panicle.”
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because the inflorescence in rice is indeed known as a panicle.

In summary, the inflorescence in rice is called a panicle, which is a distinctive branched structure containing the flowers of the rice plant.

15. Non-edible plant suitable for biodiesel is

(1) Jatropa

(2) Castor

(3) Coconut

(4) Rapeseed

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) Jatropha

Explanation: Jatropha (Jatropha curcas) is a non-edible plant that is suitable for biodiesel production. Its seeds contain oil, which can be extracted and processed into biodiesel. Jatropha is particularly attractive for biodiesel production because it can grow in arid and marginal lands where food crops might not thrive, thus avoiding competition with food production. Additionally, it has high oil content and can produce oil-rich seeds even under unfavorable conditions.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (2) Castor: Castor (Ricinus communis) seeds contain oil, and castor oil has various industrial applications, but it is also used in biodiesel production. However, it is not categorized as a non-edible plant as castor seeds contain ricin, a toxic compound.
• (3) Coconut: Coconuts are primarily cultivated for their edible fruit and other commercial products. While coconut oil can be used for biodiesel production, coconuts are considered edible plants.
• (4) Rapeseed: Rapeseed (Brassica napus) is used for producing canola oil, which can be used in biodiesel production. However, rapeseed is primarily cultivated for its oil-rich seeds, which are also used in cooking and other food products.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because Jatropha is indeed a non-edible plant suitable for biodiesel production.

In summary, while several plants can be used for biodiesel production, Jatropha is specifically known for its suitability as a non-edible plant for this purpose.

16. When the fertility gradient of the field is in two directions, the most appropriate experimental design is

(1) CRD

(2) RBD

(3) Split

(4) LSD

(5) None of these

The most appropriate experimental design for a field with a fertility gradient in two directions is:

The correct answer is (3) Split-plot design

Explanation: In a split-plot design, the main plots are assigned based on one factor (in this case, the fertility gradient), while the subplots are assigned based on another factor (e.g., treatments, varieties, etc.). This design is particularly suitable when there are two factors of interest that are not completely independent of each other, such as the fertility gradient and the treatments being tested.

In this scenario, the main plots could be assigned based on the fertility gradient (e.g., high fertility vs. low fertility), and the subplots could represent different treatments or varieties. This design allows researchers to study the effects of treatments while accounting for the variability caused by the fertility gradient.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Completely Randomized Design (CRD): CRD is not the most appropriate design in this scenario because it does not account for the spatial variation caused by the fertility gradient.
• (2) Randomized Block Design (RBD): RBD is suitable when there is only one source of variability that can be controlled (e.g., a single direction fertility gradient), but it may not be ideal for fields with fertility gradients in two directions.
• (4) Least Significant Difference (LSD): LSD is a statistical method used for comparing treatment means after conducting an experiment. It is not an experimental design and does not address the issue of field fertility gradients.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because the most appropriate design for a field with a fertility gradient in two directions is indeed the split-plot design.

In summary, the split-plot design is the most appropriate experimental design for fields with fertility gradients in two directions as it allows for the simultaneous study of multiple factors while accounting for spatial variability.

17. Country having the maximum area of hybrid rice is

(1) China

(4) U.S.A.

(2) India

(3) Indonesia

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) China

Explanation: China has been at the forefront of hybrid rice cultivation for several decades. The development and adoption of hybrid rice varieties have been a significant part of China’s agricultural modernization efforts. Hybrid rice varieties offer higher yields and better resistance to pests and diseases compared to traditional rice varieties. Due to these advantages, hybrid rice cultivation has become widespread in China, contributing significantly to the country’s rice production.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (2) India: While India is one of the largest rice-producing countries globally, the adoption of hybrid rice varieties is not as widespread as in China. India primarily cultivates traditional rice varieties and some hybrid varieties, but the area under hybrid rice cultivation is not as significant as in China.
• (3) Indonesia: Indonesia is a significant rice-producing country in Southeast Asia, but its adoption of hybrid rice varieties is not as extensive as in China. Hybrid rice cultivation in Indonesia is limited compared to China.
• (4) U.S.A.: The United States is not a major producer of rice compared to countries like China, India, and Indonesia. While rice is cultivated in some regions of the U.S., the adoption of hybrid rice varieties is not widespread, and the overall area under hybrid rice cultivation is relatively small.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because China indeed has the maximum area of hybrid rice cultivation compared to the countries listed.

In summary, China leads in the cultivation of hybrid rice, with the highest area of hybrid rice cultivation among the countries mentioned in the options.

18. ‘Vertisol’ is related to

(1) Laterite soil

(2) Red soil

(3) Alluvial soil

(4) Black soil

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (4) Black soil

Explanation: Vertisol is a type of soil characterized by its high clay content and significant shrink-swell properties. These soils expand when wet and shrink when dry, leading to the formation of deep cracks during dry seasons. Vertisols are typically dark or black in color due to the high organic matter content and are commonly known as black soils.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Laterite soil: Laterite soils are characterized by their high iron and aluminum oxide content and often have a reddish color. They form in tropical and subtropical regions with high rainfall. Laterite soils are different from Vertisols in their composition and properties.
• (2) Red soil: Red soils are characterized by their reddish color, which is due to the presence of iron oxides. They typically develop in areas with warm, humid climates and are formed through weathering processes. Red soils are different from Vertisols in their color and properties.
• (3) Alluvial soil: Alluvial soils are formed by the deposition of sediment carried by rivers and streams. They are typically fertile and found in floodplains and river valleys. Alluvial soils are different from Vertisols in their formation processes and properties.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because Vertisol is indeed related to black soil, as explained above.

In summary, Vertisol is a type of soil commonly known as black soil due to its dark color and is characterized by its high clay content and shrink-swell properties.

19. Disease caused by Zn deficiency is

(1) Khaira

(2) Mosaic

(3) Die-back

(4) Whip tail

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) Khaira

Explanation: Khaira disease, also known as ‘akio’, is a disorder primarily associated with rice plants. It is caused by a deficiency of zinc in the soil. This deficiency leads to the accumulation of toxic levels of iron and manganese in the rice plants, resulting in the formation of brown spots on the leaves. Khaira disease can adversely affect rice yield and quality if not addressed through appropriate soil management practices or zinc supplementation.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (2) Mosaic: Mosaic is a viral disease characterized by mottling or discoloration of plant leaves. It is caused by various viruses and is not related to zinc deficiency.
• (3) Die-back: Die-back refers to the progressive death of branches or shoots of a plant, often due to environmental stress, disease, or nutrient deficiencies. While nutrient deficiencies can contribute to die-back, it is not specifically associated with zinc deficiency.
• (4) Whip tail: Whip tail is a disorder primarily observed in Brassica crops (such as broccoli and cabbage) and is caused by a deficiency of molybdenum, not zinc.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because khaira disease is indeed caused by zinc deficiency, as explained above.
• In summary, khaira disease is a disorder in rice plants caused by zinc deficiency in the soil, leading to the formation of brown spots on the leaves.

20. Impact of green house effect is:

(1) Global warming

(2) Ice melting

(3) Sea formation

(4) Sea level rise

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (5) None of these

Explanation: The greenhouse effect itself is a natural process where greenhouse gases trap heat in the Earth’s atmosphere, maintaining the planet’s temperature within a habitable range. However, the impact of the greenhouse effect leads to various consequences, primarily:

• Global warming: The increase in the Earth’s average surface temperature due to the enhanced greenhouse effect caused by human activities, such as the burning of fossil fuels and deforestation.
• Ice melting: As global temperatures rise, polar ice caps, glaciers, and sea ice melt at accelerated rates, leading to the loss of ice mass and contributing to rising sea levels.
• Sea level rise: Melting ice from glaciers and polar ice caps, along with the thermal expansion of seawater, contributes to rising sea levels, posing risks to coastal communities and ecosystems.
• Changes in weather patterns: The greenhouse effect can lead to shifts in precipitation patterns, more frequent and severe weather events, and changes in the distribution of rainfall and temperature.

While options (1), (2), and (4) are all consequences of the enhanced greenhouse effect, they are not the direct impacts of the greenhouse effect itself. The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon, and its impact is the maintenance of Earth’s temperature within a habitable range. However, human activities have intensified the greenhouse effect, leading to the consequences listed above. Therefore, The correct answer is (5) None of these.

21. Study of soil from the stand point of higher plant is known as:

(1) Pedology

(2) Physiology

(3) Edaphology

(4) Geo physics

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (3) Edaphology

Explanation: Edaphology is a branch of soil science that focuses on the influence of soils on plants, including their growth, development, and productivity. It examines how soil properties such as texture, structure, pH, nutrient content, and moisture levels affect plant growth and function. Understanding the relationship between soil and plants is essential for optimizing agricultural practices, soil management, and crop production.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Pedology: Pedology is the study of soils in their natural environment, focusing on soil formation, classification, and mapping. While pedology is related to soil science, it does not specifically focus on the relationship between soils and plants.
• (2) Physiology: Physiology is the study of the functions and processes of living organisms, including plants. While plant physiology encompasses the study of how plants interact with their environment, including soil, it is a broader field than edaphology.
• (4) Geophysics: Geophysics is the study of the physical properties and processes of the Earth, including its solid earth, oceans, atmosphere, and near-Earth space. While geophysics may involve the study of soil properties, it is not specifically focused on the relationship between soils and higher plants.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because the study of soil from the standpoint of higher plants is indeed known as edaphology.

In summary, edaphology is the branch of soil science that specifically examines the relationship between soils and higher plants, making it the correct answer in this context.

22. The relative proportion of sand, silt and clay is called

(1) Soil texture

(2) Soil aggregation

(3) Soil structure

(4) Soil taxonomy

(5) None of these

The correct answer is 1) Soil texture

Explanation: Soil texture refers to the relative proportions of sand, silt, and clay particles in a soil sample. These mineral particles vary in size, with sand being the largest, followed by silt, and then clay. Soil texture influences various soil properties, such as water retention, drainage, and nutrient availability, and plays a crucial role in determining soil fertility and suitability for different agricultural purposes. Therefore, understanding soil texture is essential for effective soil management and agricultural practices.

• (2) Soil aggregation: Soil aggregation refers to the arrangement of soil particles into clusters or aggregates. Aggregation is influenced by various factors, including soil texture, organic matter content, microbial activity, and soil management practices. Aggregates improve soil structure by creating pore spaces that enhance water infiltration, aeration, and root penetration. While soil aggregation is important for soil health and fertility, it specifically refers to the arrangement of soil particles into aggregates rather than the relative proportion of sand, silt, and clay.
• (3) Soil structure: Soil structure refers to the arrangement of soil particles into larger units or aggregates, as well as the spatial arrangement of these aggregates within the soil profile. Soil structure is influenced by various factors, including soil texture, organic matter content, microbial activity, and soil management practices. Good soil structure is important for soil fertility, water retention, drainage, root development, and overall soil health. While soil structure is related to soil texture, it specifically encompasses the organization of soil particles into larger units and their spatial arrangement within the soil profile.
• (4) Soil taxonomy: Soil taxonomy is the classification of soils into different categories or taxa based on their properties, characteristics, and relationships. Soil taxonomy systems classify soils based on various criteria, including soil texture, mineralogy, color, drainage, and soil formation processes. These classification systems provide a framework for organizing and understanding the diversity of soils found in different regions and environments. Soil taxonomy is important for soil mapping, land use planning, environmental management, and scientific research. However, soil taxonomy specifically focuses on classifying soils into different categories rather than describing the relative proportion of sand, silt, and clay.
• Therefore, option (1) Soil texture remains the correct answer, as it specifically refers to the relative proportion of sand, silt, and clay in soil.

23. Which of the following crops is thermo-insensitive?

(1) Sunflower

(2) Wheat

(3) Rice

(4) Jo war

(5) None of these

The crop that is thermo-insensitive, meaning it is not significantly affected by temperature variations, is:

The correct answer is (3) Rice

Explanation: Rice is considered a thermo-insensitive crop, meaning its growth and development are less influenced by temperature variations compared to other crops. While rice does have temperature preferences for optimal growth, it can tolerate a wide range of temperatures during its growth stages. This characteristic makes rice cultivation feasible in diverse climatic conditions, ranging from tropical to temperate regions.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Sunflower: Sunflower is a crop that is sensitive to temperature variations, particularly during its flowering stage. Extreme temperatures, either too high or too low, can adversely affect sunflower yield and quality.
• (2) Wheat: Wheat is a crop that exhibits varying degrees of temperature sensitivity depending on the variety and growth stage. While wheat generally prefers cooler temperatures during its vegetative stage and warmer temperatures during its reproductive stage, it is more sensitive to temperature fluctuations compared to rice.
• (4) Jowar (Sorghum): Jowar, also known as sorghum, is a crop that is relatively less sensitive to temperature fluctuations compared to some other crops like wheat and sunflower. However, it is not considered thermo-insensitive like rice.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because rice, as explained above, is indeed considered thermo-insensitive compared to the other crops listed.

In summary, rice is the crop that is thermo-insensitive, meaning its growth and development are less affected by temperature variations compared to other crops like sunflower, wheat, and jowar.

24. Alluvial soils are found in:

(1) Deserts

(2) Forests

(3) River delta

(4) Mountains

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (3) River delta

Explanation: Alluvial soils are formed by the deposition of silt, sand, and clay carried by rivers and streams. River deltas, which are areas where rivers meet and deposit their sediments before flowing into larger bodies of water such as oceans or lakes, are prime locations for the accumulation of alluvial soils. The sedimentary deposition process over time creates fertile and well-drained soils suitable for agriculture. Therefore, river deltas are commonly associated with the presence of alluvial soils.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) Deserts: Deserts typically have sandy or rocky soils with low organic matter content and minimal vegetation cover. Alluvial soils, which are formed by the deposition of sediments carried by rivers, are not commonly found in deserts.
• (2) Forests: Forested areas may have a variety of soil types depending on factors such as climate, topography, and vegetation. While some forests may have alluvial soils near rivers or streams, alluvial soils are not exclusive to forested areas.
• (4) Mountains: Mountainous regions generally have rocky soils with steep slopes, and the soil composition can vary significantly depending on factors such as altitude, climate, and geological processes. While some alluvial soils may occur in valleys or foothills where rivers deposit sediment, they are not typically associated with mountainous terrain.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because alluvial soils are indeed found in river deltas, as explained above.

In summary, alluvial soils are commonly found in river deltas, where sediments deposited by rivers create fertile and well-drained soils suitable for agriculture

25. C4 plant normally produce more biological yield thar C3 plant because of:

(1) More photorespiration

(2) Less photorespiration

(3) Less photophosphorylation

(4) More photophosphorylation

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (2) Less photorespiration

Explanation: C4 plants have a specialized carbon fixation pathway that helps them minimize photorespiration compared to C3 plants. Photorespiration is a process in which oxygen is used instead of carbon dioxide during photosynthesis, leading to energy waste and reduced efficiency in C3 plants. In C4 plants, the initial carbon fixation step occurs in mesophyll cells, where phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) carboxylase adds carbon dioxide to phosphoenolpyruvate, forming a four-carbon compound (hence the name C4 plants). This four-carbon compound is then transported to bundle sheath cells, where it releases carbon dioxide for the Calvin cycle, effectively concentrating carbon dioxide around the enzyme Rubisco. This concentration of carbon dioxide minimizes the likelihood of oxygen binding to Rubisco, thereby reducing photorespiration. As a result, C4 plants are more efficient in carbon dioxide fixation and can produce more biomass (biological yield) compared to C3 plants under high temperatures and intense light conditions.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

• (1) More photorespiration: C4 plants actually exhibit less photorespiration compared to C3 plants due to their specialized carbon fixation pathway, as explained above.
• (3) Less photophosphorylation: Photophosphorylation is the process of using light energy to convert ADP and inorganic phosphate into ATP during photosynthesis. The efficiency of photophosphorylation may vary between C3 and C4 plants, but it is not the primary reason for the difference in biological yield between the two types of plants.
• (4) More photophosphorylation: This option is incorrect because C4 plants do not necessarily undergo more photophosphorylation compared to C3 plants. While the efficiency of ATP production may differ between C3 and C4 plants, it is not the primary factor contributing to the difference in biological yield.
• (5) None of these: This option is incorrect because the primary reason for the higher biological yield of C4 plants compared to C3 plants is indeed their ability to minimize photorespiration, as explained above.

In summary, C4 plants produce more biological yield than C3 plants primarily because they exhibit less photorespiration due to their specialized carbon fixation pathway.

26. Which of the following insecticides may be recommended for the control of termites?

(1) Chlorpyriphos

(2) Nimbricidine

(3) Dimethonate

(4) Methyl-0-demetone

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) Chlorpyriphos.

Explanation:

Chlorpyriphos is a commonly used insecticide for controlling termites. It belongs to the organophosphate class of insecticides and works by disrupting the nervous system of insects, including termites, leading to paralysis and ultimately death. It is effective in both preventing termite infestations and treating existing ones.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(2) Nimbricidine: Nimbricidine is not a commonly used insecticide for termite control. It seems to be a fictitious or uncommonly known substance.

(3) Dimethonate: Dimethonate is not typically recommended for termite control. It is more commonly used as an insecticide for controlling aphids, leafhoppers, and other pests on crops like fruits and vegetables.

(4) Methyl-0-demetone: Methyl-0-demetone does not appear to be a recognized insecticide. It may also be a fictitious or uncommonly known substance.

(5) None of these: This option indicates that none of the listed insecticides are recommended for termite control, which is incorrect.

27. Plants capable of growing in rocks crevices are called

(1) Calciphytes

(2) Chasmophytes

(3) Lithophytes

(4) Helophytes

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (3) Lithophytes.

Explanation: Lithophytes are plants capable of growing in the cracks and crevices of rocks. These plants have adapted to harsh conditions where soil is scarce or nonexistent, and they derive their nutrients and moisture from the rocks themselves or from organic matter that accumulates in the crevices. They often have specialized root systems and adaptations to withstand extreme temperatures and exposure to sunlight.

Explanations for Incorrect Options: (1) Calciphytes: Calciphytes are plants that thrive in calcium-rich soils. They are not specifically adapted to growing in rock crevices. (2) Chasmophytes: Chasmophytes are plants that grow on cliffs or rocky outcrops. While similar to lithophytes, they may not be exclusively limited to growing in rock crevices. (4) Helophytes: Helophytes are plants that grow in marshes, swamps, or other waterlogged areas. They are not adapted to growing in rock crevices. (5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided terms are correct, but in this case, “Lithophytes” is the correct term for plants growing in rock crevices.

28. Which crop is also known as white gold?

(1) Maize

(2) Opium

(3) Soybean

(4) Cotton

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (4) Cotton.

Explanation:

Cotton is often referred to as “white gold” due to its historical significance and economic value. The term reflects the importance of cotton as a cash crop in many regions of the world, particularly during periods when it was a major driver of economies, such as during the Industrial Revolution. Cotton has been valued for its versatility and use in textile production, making it a valuable commodity traded on international markets.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(1) Maize: Maize, also known as corn, is an important crop worldwide, but it is not commonly referred to as “white gold.”

(2) Opium: Opium is not typically referred to as “white gold.” It is a highly addictive narcotic derived from the opium poppy and is often associated with illegal drug trade rather than agricultural commodities.

(3) Soybean: Soybeans are a major crop grown for their oil and protein-rich seeds. While soybeans are economically important, they are not commonly known as “white gold.”

(5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided crops are known as “white gold,” but in this case, “Cotton” is indeed known by that nickname.

29. Densest part of atmosphere strata is

(1) Troposphere

(2) Thermosphere

(3) Stratosphere

(4) Mesosphere

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) Troposphere.

Explanation: The troposphere is the lowest layer of the Earth’s atmosphere, extending from the surface to an average altitude of about 8 to 15 kilometers (5 to 9 miles) depending on the location and season. It is where most of the Earth’s weather occurs and contains approximately 75% of the atmosphere’s mass. Due to the gravitational force, the air molecules are most densely packed in the troposphere, making it the densest part of the atmosphere.

Explanations for Incorrect Options: (2) Thermosphere: The thermosphere is located above the mesosphere and is characterized by a high temperature, but it is not the densest part of the atmosphere. In fact, despite its high temperature, the thermosphere has a very low density of air molecules. (3) Stratosphere: The stratosphere is situated above the troposphere and contains the ozone layer, but it is not as dense as the troposphere. (4) Mesosphere: The mesosphere is above the stratosphere and below the thermosphere. While it is denser than the thermosphere, it is not as dense as the troposphere. (5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided layers are the densest part of the atmosphere, but in this case, “Troposphere” is indeed the correct answer.

30. Transgenic crop having maximum cultivated area in

the world is

(1) Maize

(2) Rice

(3) Soybean

(4) Cotton

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (3) Soybean.

Explanation:

Soybean is the transgenic crop with the maximum cultivated area in the world. Transgenic crops, also known as genetically modified (GM) crops, have been genetically engineered to introduce desirable traits such as resistance to pests, diseases, or herbicides, as well as improved nutritional content or environmental tolerance. Soybean has been widely genetically modified to enhance traits such as herbicide resistance and yield, leading to its extensive cultivation globally.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(1) Maize: While maize (corn) is also extensively genetically modified, particularly in regions such as the United States, its cultivated area for transgenic varieties is not as extensive as soybean globally.

(2) Rice: Rice is an important staple crop, but the adoption of genetically modified varieties of rice has been more limited compared to crops like soybean and maize.

(4) Cotton: Cotton is another crop that has been extensively genetically modified, primarily for traits such as insect resistance (Bt cotton) and herbicide tolerance. However, its cultivated area for transgenic varieties is not as extensive as soybean.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided crops have the maximum cultivated area as transgenic crops, but in this case, “Soybean” is indeed the correct answer.

31. Crop logging is done in

(1) Sugarcane

(2) Maize

(3) Tobacco

(4) Cotton

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (4) Cotton.

Explanation:

Crop logging, also known as “lopping,” involves the removal of excess vegetative growth or branches from crops to promote better air circulation, light penetration, and overall plant health. This practice is commonly done in cotton cultivation to improve the quality and yield of cotton fibers. By removing excess foliage, crop logging helps reduce the risk of diseases, pests, and lodging (plants falling over) while also improving the efficiency of pesticide application and harvesting.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(1) Sugarcane: While sugarcane may undergo some form of pruning or management, crop logging, as described above, is not commonly associated with sugarcane cultivation.

(2) Maize: Crop logging is not typically done in maize cultivation. Maize plants generally do not require the same level of pruning as crops like cotton.

(3) Tobacco: Crop logging is not a common practice in tobacco cultivation. Tobacco plants are typically harvested differently, and pruning is done for specific purposes related to leaf quality rather than overall plant health.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that crop logging is not associated with any of the provided crops, but in this case, “Cotton” is indeed the correct answer.

32. Pruning is most essential for

(1) Cauliflower

(2) Rubber

(3) tea

(4) Chinchona

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (3) Tea.

Explanation:

Pruning is most essential for tea plants. Pruning involves the selective removal of certain parts of the plant, such as branches, shoots, or leaves, to promote better growth, yield, and quality of the crop. In tea cultivation, pruning is essential for maintaining the desired shape of the tea bushes, controlling their size, and encouraging the growth of new shoots, which produce the highest quality tea leaves.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(1) Cauliflower: While pruning may be done in cauliflower cultivation for specific purposes, such as removing damaged or diseased leaves, it is not as essential for cauliflower plants compared to tea plants.

(2) Rubber: Pruning may be done in rubber cultivation to remove diseased or damaged branches and to facilitate latex collection, but it is not considered as essential as it is for tea plants.

(4) Chinchona: Chinchona is a tree species from which quinine, a medicinal compound, is extracted. Pruning may be done for maintenance purposes, but it is not as critical as it is for tea plants.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that pruning is not essential for any of the provided crops, but in this case, “Tea” is indeed the correct answer.

33. Most widely cultivated mustard type in India is

(1) Yellow/brown sarson

(2) Black mustard

(3) Toria

(4) Indian mustard

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (4) Indian mustard.

Explanation: Indian mustard (Brassica juncea) is the most widely cultivated type of mustard in India. It is commonly grown for its seeds, which are used in cooking oil production and as a spice. Indian mustard is well-adapted to various agro-climatic conditions in India and is an important crop in the country, contributing significantly to oilseed production.

Explanations for Incorrect Options: (1) Yellow/brown sarson: Yellow/brown sarson is another name for Indian mustard (Brassica juncea), so option (1) is essentially the same as option (4). (2) Black mustard: While black mustard (Brassica nigra) is also grown in India, it is not as widely cultivated as Indian mustard. (3) Toria: Toria, also known as rapeseed, is a type of mustard (Brassica rapa) that is grown in India, but it is not as extensively cultivated as Indian mustard. (5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided types are the most widely cultivated mustard in India, but in this case, “Indian mustard” (option 4) is indeed the correct answer.

34. In India maximum area under wheat is occupied by the Species?

(1) Triticum aestivum

(2) Triticum dicoccum

(3) Triticum durum

(4) Triticum vulgare

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) Triticum aestivum.

Explanation:

In India, the maximum area under wheat is occupied by the species Triticum aestivum, commonly known as common wheat or bread wheat. Triticum aestivum is the most widely cultivated species of wheat globally and is favored for its high yield potential and adaptability to various environmental conditions.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(2) Triticum dicoccum: Triticum dicoccum, also known as emmer wheat, is an ancient species of wheat, but it is not as extensively cultivated in India as Triticum aestivum.

(3) Triticum durum: Triticum durum, commonly known as durum wheat or macaroni wheat, is primarily used for making pasta and semolina. It is not as widely cultivated in India for wheat production as Triticum aestivum.

(4) Triticum vulgare: Triticum vulgare is a synonym for Triticum aestivum, so option (4) is essentially the same as option (1).

(5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided species are the ones occupying the maximum area under wheat in India, but in this case, “Triticum aestivum” (option 1) is indeed the correct answer.

35. Which soil has highest efficiency?

[1] Loamy soil

(2) Sandy soil

(3) Clay soil

(4) Both (1) and (3)

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (4) Both (1) and (3).

Explanation:

Loamy soil and clay soil are both considered to have high efficiency in terms of agricultural productivity, but for different reasons.

Loamy soil is a combination of sand, silt, and clay, with a balanced mixture of particle sizes. It retains moisture well, has good drainage, and provides a favorable environment for root growth. These characteristics make loamy soil highly efficient for agriculture as it supports the growth of a wide range of crops.

Clay soil, on the other hand, is characterized by tiny particles with high water and nutrient retention capacity. While clay soil can be challenging to work with due to its tendency to become compacted and waterlogged, proper management can make it highly efficient for agriculture. Clay soil is particularly suitable for crops that require a consistent water supply and benefit from the retention of nutrients.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(1) Sandy soil: Sandy soil is less efficient compared to loamy and clay soils because it has large particles that do not hold water or nutrients well. While it provides good drainage, it often requires frequent irrigation and fertilization to support crop growth.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided soils have the highest efficiency, but in this case, “Both (1) and (3)” (loamy soil and clay soil) are indeed considered to have high efficiency in agriculture.

36. Maximum productivity of sugarcane in India is

(1) Punjab

(2) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Haryana

(4) Tamil Nadu

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (2) Uttar Pradesh.

Explanation:

Uttar Pradesh is the leading sugarcane-producing state in India and has the highest productivity of sugarcane in the country. The favorable agro-climatic conditions, availability of water resources, and extensive cultivation areas contribute to Uttar Pradesh’s significant contribution to sugarcane production in India.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(1) Punjab: Punjab is not known for sugarcane production to the extent that Uttar Pradesh is. While Punjab is a major agricultural state known for crops like wheat and rice, sugarcane cultivation is not as prominent.

(3) Haryana: Similar to Punjab, Haryana is not as well-known for sugarcane production compared to Uttar Pradesh. Haryana’s agriculture is focused more on crops like wheat, rice, and cotton.

(4) Tamil Nadu: While Tamil Nadu does cultivate sugarcane, its productivity is not as high as Uttar Pradesh. Tamil Nadu is known for a variety of crops including rice, pulses, and spices.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided states have the maximum productivity of sugarcane in India, but in this case, “Uttar Pradesh” (option 2) is indeed known for having the highest productivity of sugarcane.

37. The crop having the highest pesticide use is

(1) Cotton

(2) Oilseeds

(3) Rice

(4) Wheat

(5) None of these

correct answer is (1) Cotton.

Explanation:

Cotton is the crop that typically requires the highest pesticide use globally. This is because cotton plants are susceptible to a wide range of pests, including insects, mites, and diseases. Pesticides are used extensively in cotton cultivation to control these pests and protect the yield and quality of the cotton fibers. In some regions, cotton accounts for a significant portion of total pesticide use in agriculture.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(2) Oilseeds: While some oilseed crops may require pesticide applications, they generally do not have the same level of pest pressure as cotton.

(3) Rice: Rice cultivation also involves the use of pesticides, but typically not to the same extent as cotton.

(4) Wheat: Wheat cultivation generally requires fewer pesticide applications compared to crops like cotton.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided crops have the highest pesticide use, but in this case, “Cotton” (option 1) is indeed known for having the highest pesticide use among crops.

38. Sulphur containing amino acid

(1) Lysine

(2) Methionine

(3) Glutamine

(4) Glycine

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (2) Methionine.

Explanation:

Methionine is a sulfur-containing amino acid. It is one of the essential amino acids, meaning that the body cannot synthesize it and must obtain it from the diet. Methionine plays crucial roles in protein synthesis, methylation reactions, and the formation of other important molecules in the body.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(1) Lysine: Lysine is an essential amino acid, but it does not contain sulfur in its chemical structure.

(3) Glutamine: Glutamine is a nonessential amino acid, meaning that the body can synthesize it. It also does not contain sulfur in its chemical structure.

(4) Glycine: Glycine is a nonessential amino acid and does not contain sulfur.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided amino acids are sulfur-containing, but in this case, “Methionine” (option 2) is indeed a sulfur-containing amino acid.

39. Densest part of atmosphere strata is

(1) Troposphere

(2) Thermosphere

(3) Stratosphere

(4) Mesosphere

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) Troposphere.

Explanation:

The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere, extending from the surface up to about 8 to 15 kilometers (5 to 9 miles) altitude. It contains the densest concentration of gases, including nitrogen, oxygen, and trace amounts of other gases such as carbon dioxide, water vapor, and aerosols. The density of air molecules gradually decreases with altitude within the troposphere.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(2) Thermosphere: The thermosphere is located above the mesosphere and is characterized by extremely high temperatures, but it has a very low density of air molecules.

(3) Stratosphere: The stratosphere is situated above the troposphere and contains the ozone layer, but it is not as dense as the troposphere.

(4) Mesosphere: The mesosphere is above the stratosphere and below the thermosphere. While it is denser than the thermosphere, it is not as dense as the troposphere.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided layers are the densest part of the atmosphere, but in this case, “Troposphere” (option 1) is indeed the correct answer.

40. Aflatoxin contamination is generally found in

(1) Arhar

(2) Groundnut

(3) Chickpea

(4) Soybean

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (2) Groundnut.

Explanation:

Aflatoxin contamination is a significant concern in groundnut (peanut) cultivation. Aflatoxins are toxic and carcinogenic compounds produced by certain molds, particularly Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus, which can infect crops under certain conditions, especially when they are stressed by drought or high temperatures. Groundnuts are particularly susceptible to aflatoxin contamination if they are not stored properly or if they experience environmental stress during growth.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(1) Arhar (pigeon pea): Aflatoxin contamination is not typically associated with pigeon pea cultivation.

(3) Chickpea: While chickpeas can be susceptible to certain diseases and pests, aflatoxin contamination is not commonly found in chickpea crops.

(4) Soybean: Aflatoxin contamination is not typically associated with soybean cultivation. Soybeans may be susceptible to other types of mold contamination under certain conditions, but aflatoxins are not as common in soybeans as in groundnuts.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided crops are associated with aflatoxin contamination, but in this case, “Groundnut” (option 2) is indeed known for being susceptible to aflatoxin contamination.

41. Photo-periodically rice is a

(1) Day neutral plant

(2) Long day plant

(3) Short day plant

(4) Both (1) and (2)

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) Day neutral plant.

Explanation:

Photo-periodism refers to a plant’s response to the length of daylight or photoperiod. Some plants flower in response to specific day lengths, while others are not influenced by day length (day-neutral) and will flower regardless of the photoperiod.

Rice is considered a day-neutral plant, meaning its flowering is not significantly influenced by day length. Instead, rice flowering is primarily controlled by other factors such as temperature and water availability. However, some rice varieties may exhibit slight preferences for certain day lengths, but overall, rice is not classified as a long day or short day plant.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(2) Long day plant: Long day plants flower when the day length exceeds a critical threshold. Rice does not fall into this category as its flowering is not primarily influenced by day length.

(3) Short day plant: Short day plants flower when the day length is shorter than a critical threshold. Rice does not fall into this category either, as its flowering is not primarily influenced by day length.

(4) Both (1) and (2): This option suggests that rice is both a day-neutral plant and a long day plant, which is not accurate. Rice is primarily considered a day-neutral plant.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that rice does not fit any of the provided classifications, but in this case, “Day neutral plant” (option 1) is indeed the correct answer.

42. Growth of plant towards light is called?

(1) Phatotropism

(2) Photorespiration

(3) Photocromatism

(4) Photoperiodism

(5) None of these

The correct term for the growth of a plant towards light is (1) Phototropism.

Explanation:

Phototropism is the directional growth of an organism in response to light stimulus. In plants, phototropism allows them to grow towards a light source, which is typically sunlight. This phenomenon is important for optimizing photosynthesis and maximizing light absorption for energy production.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(2) Photorespiration: Photorespiration is a metabolic process in plants that occurs in the presence of light and involves the uptake of oxygen and release of carbon dioxide. It is a side reaction of photosynthesis and is not directly related to the growth of plants towards light.

(3) Photocromatism: “Photocromatism” is not a recognized term in biology. It seems to be a misspelling or a term that does not accurately describe the phenomenon of plant growth towards light.

(4) Photoperiodism: Photoperiodism refers to the physiological response of organisms to the length of day or night. It regulates processes such as flowering in plants based on the duration of daylight and darkness. While related to light, photoperiodism is not specifically about the directional growth of plants towards light.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided terms are correct, but in this case, “Phototropism” (option 1) is indeed the correct term for the growth of plants towards light.

43. Sugar beet is an indicator plant for

(1) Sodium

(2) Molybdenum

(3) Zinc

(4) Phosphorus

(5) None of these

he correct answer is (3) Zinc.

Explanation:

Sugar beet is known as an indicator plant for zinc deficiency in soils. Zinc is an essential micronutrient for plants, playing a critical role in various physiological processes, including enzyme activity, protein synthesis, and carbohydrate metabolism. Sugar beet plants are sensitive to zinc deficiency, and their growth and development can be adversely affected by inadequate zinc levels in the soil. Therefore, observing symptoms of zinc deficiency in sugar beet plants can indicate the need for zinc fertilization or soil amendments to improve zinc availability for plant uptake.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(1) Sodium: Sugar beet is not typically used as an indicator plant for sodium levels in soils. Sodium is not considered an essential nutrient for most plants, and high levels of sodium can be detrimental to plant growth.

(2) Molybdenum: While molybdenum is an essential micronutrient for plants, sugar beet is not commonly used as an indicator plant for molybdenum deficiency in soils.

(4) Phosphorus: Sugar beet is not specifically known as an indicator plant for phosphorus deficiency. However, like other crops, sugar beet requires phosphorus for various metabolic processes and growth.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that sugar beet is not an indicator plant for any of the provided nutrients, but in this case, “Zinc” (option 3) is indeed the correct answer.

44. CO2 accepter in C4 plants is

(1) PGA

(2) BP

(3) DAA

(4) All

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (2) BP, which stands for Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) Carboxylase.

Explanation:

In C4 photosynthesis, carbon dioxide (CO2) is initially fixed into a four-carbon compound called oxaloacetate (OAA) by an enzyme called Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) Carboxylase. This occurs in the mesophyll cells of C4 plants. The four-carbon compound, OAA, is then converted into another four-carbon compound called malate or aspartate, which is then shuttled to bundle-sheath cells where CO2 is released and enters the Calvin cycle for further processing. The compound that accepts CO2 in C4 plants is Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP), not PGA (1), DAA (3), or all compounds (4).

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(1) PGA: PGA, or 3-phosphoglycerate, is not the CO2 acceptor in C4 plants. It is an intermediate in the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis, which occurs in C3 plants.

(3) DAA: DAA is not a commonly known compound involved in C4 photosynthesis. The CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP), as mentioned earlier.

(4) All: While multiple compounds are involved in the C4 pathway, only Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) serves as the initial CO2 acceptor in C4 plants.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided compounds are the CO2 acceptor in C4 plants, but in this case, “BP” (option 2) is indeed the correct answer.

45. Plant cells are connected with the help of

(1) Pisnodesmata.

(2) Cellwall

(3) Plasma membrane

(4) Plasmoderma

(5) None of these

The correct term is (4) Plasmodesmata.

Explanation:

Plant cells are connected with the help of structures called plasmodesmata. Plasmodesmata are microscopic channels that traverse the cell walls of plant cells, connecting the cytoplasm of adjacent cells. These channels allow for the exchange of various molecules, including water, ions, small nutrients, and signaling molecules, between neighboring plant cells. Plasmodesmata play crucial roles in cell-to-cell communication, nutrient transport, and coordination of growth and development in plants.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(1) Pisnodesmata: “Pisnodesmata” is not a recognized term in biology. It seems to be a misspelling or a term that does not accurately describe the connections between plant cells.

(2) Cell wall: While the cell wall is a vital structure in plant cells, it is not directly involved in physically connecting neighboring plant cells. Instead, the primary role of the cell wall is to provide structural support, protection, and rigidity to plant cells.

(3) Plasma membrane: While the plasma membrane is a vital structure in plant cells, it is not directly involved in connecting plant cells. Plasmodesmata, which traverse the cell walls, facilitate direct connections between plant cells.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that none of the provided terms are correct, but in this case, “Plasmodesmata” (option 4) is indeed the correct term for the structures that connect plant cells.

46. Pruning is most essential for:

(1) Cauliflower

(2) Rubber

(3) Tea

(4) Chinchona

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (3) Tea.

Explanation:

Pruning is most essential for tea plants. Pruning involves the selective removal of certain parts of the plant, such as branches, shoots, or leaves, to promote better growth, yield, and quality of the crop. In tea cultivation, pruning is essential for maintaining the desired shape of the tea bushes, controlling their size, and encouraging the growth of new shoots, which produce the highest quality tea leaves.

Explanations for Incorrect Options:

(1) Cauliflower: While pruning may be done in cauliflower cultivation for specific purposes, such as removing damaged or diseased leaves, it is not as essential for cauliflower plants compared to tea plants.

(2) Rubber: Pruning may be done in rubber cultivation to remove diseased or damaged branches and to facilitate latex collection, but it is not considered as essential as it is for tea plants.

(4) Chinchona: Chinchona is a tree species from which quinine, a medicinal compound, is extracted. Pruning may be done for maintenance purposes, but it is not as critical as it is for tea plants.

(5) None of these: This option suggests that pruning is not essential for any of the provided crops, but in this case, “Tea” (option 3) is indeed the correct answer.

47. The CO2 content of soil air is

(1)-39%

(2)0.3%

(3) 0.03%

(4) 0.003%

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (5) None of these.

The CO2 content of soil air can vary widely depending on factors such as soil type, microbial activity, root respiration, and environmental conditions. However, the typical concentration of CO2 in soil air is generally higher than the concentration in atmospheric air, but it is still relatively low compared to other gases.

While there isn’t a precise or fixed value for the CO2 content of soil air, it typically ranges from about 0.1% to 1% in undisturbed soils. In agricultural soils or soils with high microbial activity, the CO2 concentration can be higher, reaching up to a few percentage points in certain conditions. Therefore, none of the provided options accurately represent the typical CO2 content of soil air.

Option (1) -39%: This value is not feasible for the CO2 content of soil air. CO2 concentrations are typically measured in parts per million (ppm) or percentages, but a negative percentage does not make sense in this context.

Option (2) 0.3%: While this value falls within the range of typical CO2 concentrations in soil air, it is not a universally accurate representation. CO2 concentrations in soil air can vary widely and are influenced by multiple factors, so a single percentage value may not apply in all cases.

Option (3) 0.03%: This value is also within the range of typical CO2 concentrations in soil air, but it is at the lower end of the spectrum. In some soils and conditions, CO2 concentrations may indeed be this low, but it is not a definitive value for all soils.

Option (4) 0.003%: This value is extremely low and does not accurately represent the typical CO2 content of soil air. CO2 concentrations in soil air are generally higher than this value, even in soils with low microbial activity or organic matter content.

48. Triticale is a cross between

(1) Wheat Rye

(2) Wheat x Barley

(3) Barley x Dat

(4) tx Cat

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) Wheat Rye.

Explanation:

Triticale is a hybrid crop resulting from a cross between wheat (Triticum spp.) and rye (Secale cereale). It combines the grain quality and productivity of wheat with the hardiness and disease resistance of rye. Triticale is cultivated for both forage and grain production and is used in various agricultural applications, including livestock feed and human consumption.

49. Rice grain is deficient in

(1) Lysine

(2) Alanine

(3) Glycine

(4) Isoleucine

(5) None of these

The correct answer is (1) Lysine.

Explanation:

Rice grain is deficient in the essential amino acid lysine. Lysine is one of the essential amino acids that humans must obtain from their diet because the body cannot synthesize it. While rice is a staple food for a significant portion of the world’s population, it is deficient in lysine compared to other cereal grains like wheat and barley. This lysine deficiency in rice can lead to nutritional imbalances in populations that rely heavily on rice as a dietary staple.

Options (2), (3), and (4) Alanine, Glycine, and Isoleucine:

These amino acids are not typically deficient in rice grain. While the overall protein content of rice may be lower compared to some other grains, rice contains these amino acids in sufficient quantities for human nutrition, though they may not be as abundant as in other protein sources.

Option (5) None of these:

This option suggests that none of the provided amino acids are deficient in rice grain, but in this case, “Lysine” (option 1) is indeed known to be deficient in rice grain.

IBPS AFO Mains previous year 2015 question paper with explanation

1. Social forestry is an important programme of: –

(1) MNREGA

(2) JRY

(3) IRDP

(4) IADP

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (5) None of these

• Social forestry is a broader concept aimed at involving local communities in the management and conservation of forests and afforestation efforts. It is not specifically a program under MNREGA, JRY, IADP, or IRDP. While elements of social forestry may be incorporated into various development programs, it is not the primary focus of any of these particular programs.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) MNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act)

• This is a social security measure that aims to guarantee the ‘right to work’ and ensure livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year. While it can include activities related to afforestation and land development, its primary aim is employment generation.

(2) JRY (Jawahar Rozgar Yojana)

• This was a wage employment program implemented in rural areas to provide guaranteed employment. Its primary focus was on rural infrastructure development and employment generation, not specifically on social forestry.

(3) IADP (Integrated Agricultural Development Program)

• This program focuses on improving agricultural productivity through integrated farming systems, better agricultural practices, and infrastructure. It is primarily agricultural and does not focus on social forestry.

(4) IRDP (Integrated Rural Development Program)

• This program aims at providing opportunities for the rural poor to raise their standard of living by creating sustainable employment through a variety of means including agriculture, horticulture, animal husbandry, and small-scale industries. Social forestry may be a component of some rural development projects, but it is not the primary focus of IRDP.

Therefore, none of these programs specifically identify social forestry as their primary focus, making “None of these” the correct answer.

2. Community Development was started on birth day of: –

(1) Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru

(2) Vivekanand

(3) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(4) Mahatma Gandhi

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Mahatma Gandhi

• Community Development Programs in India were initiated on October 2, 1952, which is the birthday of Mahatma Gandhi. The program was designed to promote holistic rural development through the involvement of local communities, in line with Gandhi’s vision for self-reliant and self-sufficient village communities.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

• Although Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister of India when the Community Development Program was launched and he supported the initiative, it was not started on his birthday. Nehru’s birthday is on November 14.

(2) Vivekanand

• Swami Vivekananda was a renowned spiritual leader and reformer, but the Community Development Program was not initiated on his birthday. His birthday is celebrated on January 12 as National Youth Day in India.

(3) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, also known as the Iron Man of India, played a significant role in the integration of the country, but the Community Development Program was not started on his birthday. His birthday is on October 31, which is celebrated as National Unity Day.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because the Community Development Program was indeed started on the birthday of one of the listed individuals, specifically Mahatma Gandhi.

Hence, the correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi’s birthday, making option (4) the right choice.

3. Which of the following is not institutional agency?

(1) Cooperatives

(2) Commercial Bank

(3) Government

(4) Traders

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Traders

• Traders are individuals or entities that engage in the buying and selling of goods and services. They operate in the private sector and do not typically fall under the category of institutional agencies, which are formal organizations established to serve specific functions within a structured framework.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Cooperatives

• Cooperatives are institutional agencies formed by a group of people who come together to meet their common economic, social, and cultural needs through a jointly-owned and democratically-controlled enterprise. They operate under a legal framework and have a structured organization.

(2) Commercial Bank

• Commercial banks are institutional agencies that provide financial services, including accepting deposits, providing loans, and offering investment products. They are formally regulated and operate within the banking industry’s legal framework.

(3) Government

• The government is an institutional agency that encompasses various branches and organizations responsible for governing and administering public policies and services. It operates within a formal and legal framework to manage state affairs.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because there is indeed an option (traders) listed that does not qualify as an institutional agency.

Thus, traders (option 4) do not fall under the category of institutional agencies, making them the correct answer to this question.

4. The physical aspects of farm planning expressed in monetary terms is called: –

(1) Farm planning

(2) Farm budgeting

(3) Farm partial budgeting

(4) Both (1) and (2)

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (2) Farm budgeting

• Farm budgeting is the process of estimating the costs and revenues associated with the various activities on a farm. It involves translating the physical aspects of farm planning (such as the amount of land to be cultivated, the types of crops to be grown, the number of livestock, etc.) into monetary terms to create a financial plan for the farm. This helps in making informed decisions about resource allocation, expenditure, and expected income.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Farm planning

• Farm planning involves organizing and allocating resources on a farm to achieve specific goals, such as maximizing yields or optimizing labor use. While it includes considering the physical aspects of farming, it does not necessarily express these aspects in monetary terms.

(3) Farm partial budgeting

• Farm partial budgeting focuses on analyzing the financial impact of small changes or specific decisions within the farm, such as adding a new crop or changing a farming practice. It considers the additional costs and revenues associated with the change but does not encompass the entire farm’s financial planning.

(4) Both (1) and (2)

• While farm planning and farm budgeting are related, they are not the same thing. Farm planning refers to the overall organization and resource management on a farm, whereas farm budgeting specifically deals with expressing these plans in monetary terms. Therefore, this option is not correct because it suggests that both terms refer to expressing physical aspects in monetary terms.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because farm budgeting correctly describes the process of expressing the physical aspects of farm planning in monetary terms.

Therefore, the correct answer is farm budgeting, making option (2) the right choice.

5. The long term loans in cooperative credit organization have: –

(1) Two-tier system

(2) Three-tier system

(3) Four-tier system

(4) Both (1) and (2)

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (2) Three-tier system

• The cooperative credit structure in India, especially for long-term loans, typically follows a three-tier system. This system is designed to facilitate the flow of credit from the grassroots level to the higher levels and ensure that the financial needs of farmers and rural communities are adequately met.

Three-tier system structure:

1. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)

o At the village or grassroots level, these societies directly deal with individual farmers, providing them with short-term and long-term credit.

2. District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs)

o At the district level, these banks serve as intermediaries, providing credit to PACS and supporting them with necessary financial resources and oversight.

3. State Cooperative Banks (SCBs)

o At the state level, these banks provide the required financial support and coordination to DCCBs and maintain a connection with the national-level financial institutions.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Two-tier system

• The two-tier system is more common in short-term cooperative credit structures. It involves Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) at the village level and State Cooperative Banks (SCBs) at the state level, bypassing the district level.

(3) Four-tier system

• There is no standard four-tier system in the cooperative credit structure for long-term loans. The typical structures are either two-tier or three-tier.

(4) Both (1) and (2)

• This option is incorrect because the long-term cooperative credit structure specifically follows a three-tier system, not a combination of two-tier and three-tier systems.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because the correct structure for long-term cooperative credit is indeed a three-tier system.

Thus, the correct answer is a three-tier system, making option (2) the right choice.

6. Which of the following is not a component of the project life cycle?

(1) Conception

(2) Preparation

(3) Appraisal

(4) Awareness

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Awareness

• Awareness is not a standard component of the project life cycle. The project life cycle typically includes stages that are directly involved in the planning, execution, and completion of a project.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Conception

• Conception is the initial stage of the project life cycle where the idea for the project is generated and its feasibility is evaluated. This stage involves identifying the project’s purpose, objectives, and scope.

(2) Preparation

• Preparation, also known as planning, involves detailed planning of the project. This includes defining tasks, schedules, resources, and budgets. It sets the groundwork for the project’s implementation.

(3) Appraisal

• Appraisal is the stage where the project proposal is evaluated in detail to determine its viability and potential impact. This involves analyzing the costs, benefits, risks, and overall feasibility before the project gets approval to proceed.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because there is indeed an option (awareness) listed that does not qualify as a component of the project life cycle.

Therefore, awareness (option 4) is not a standard component of the project life cycle, making it the correct answer to this question.

7. Preparing a farm budget in advance is known as: –

(1) Farm budgeting

(2) Partial budgeting

(3) Farm planning

(4) Advanced statement

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (1) Farm budgeting

• Farm budgeting involves creating a detailed financial plan for the farm’s operations in advance. This process includes estimating costs, revenues, and financial outcomes for different farming activities. It helps farmers to allocate resources efficiently, plan for expenditures, and forecast potential income, thereby preparing the farm for the upcoming period.

Explanation of Other Options:

(2) Partial budgeting

• Partial budgeting is a method used to evaluate the financial impact of small changes or specific decisions within the farm, such as introducing a new crop variety or changing a farming practice. It does not cover the entire farm’s financial plan but focuses on particular changes.

(3) Farm planning

• Farm planning involves organizing and allocating resources on the farm to achieve specific goals, such as maximizing production or optimizing labor use. While farm planning includes various aspects of farm management, farm budgeting specifically refers to the financial planning part of this process.

(4) Advanced statement

• An advanced statement is not a standard term used in the context of farm management or budgeting. It might refer to a detailed forecast or financial statement, but it is not the correct term for the process of preparing a farm budget in advance.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because preparing a farm budget in advance is indeed known as farm budgeting.

Therefore, preparing a farm budget in advance is referred to as farm budgeting, making option (1) the correct choice.

8. The most common method that exists in regulated markets is: –

(1) Close tender system

(2) Open auction system

(3) Dara sale

(4) Moghum sale

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (2) Open auction system

• In regulated markets, the open auction system is the most common method used for selling agricultural produce. This system involves openly bidding for goods, where the highest bidder wins. It ensures transparency in pricing and helps farmers get competitive prices for their products.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Close tender system

• In a close tender system, bids are submitted in sealed envelopes and opened at a specified time. This method is less common in regulated agricultural markets because it lacks the transparency and immediate price discovery provided by open auctions.

(3) Dara sale

• Dara sale refers to a bulk selling method where produce is sold in large quantities as a single lot. While this method is used in some markets, it is not as common as the open auction system in regulated markets.

(4) Moghum sale

• Moghum sale is a term that is not widely recognized or used in the context of regulated agricultural markets. It is not a standard selling method.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because the open auction system is indeed a common and well-recognized method in regulated markets.

Therefore, the most common method existing in regulated markets is the open auction system, making option (2) the correct choice.

9. Regional Rural Banks under the sponsorship of Nationalized Banks were established in the year: –

(1) 1972

(2) 1973

(3) 1974

(4) 1975

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) 1975

• Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India were established under the Regional Rural Banks Act of 1976, but the actual establishment and operation began in 1975. The aim was to provide sufficient banking and credit facilities for agriculture and other rural sectors. These banks were set up under the sponsorship of nationalized banks and supported by the government to enhance rural banking infrastructure.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) 1972

• This year does not correspond to the establishment of Regional Rural Banks. RRBs were not conceptualized or established during this period.

(2) 1973

• Similar to 1972, this year does not mark the establishment of Regional Rural Banks.

(3) 1974

• While discussions and planning for rural banking may have been underway during this period, the actual establishment of RRBs occurred in 1975.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because the correct year for the establishment of RRBs is indeed listed among the options.

Therefore, Regional Rural Banks under the sponsorship of nationalized banks were established in the year 1975, making option (4) the correct choice.

10. Directorate of Rice Research is located at: –

(1) Hyderabad

(2) Cuttack

(3) Patna

(4) Andhra Pradesh

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (1) Hyderabad

• The Directorate of Rice Research (DRR), now known as the Indian Institute of Rice Research (IIRR), is located in Hyderabad, Telangana. This institute is a premier national research organization dedicated to rice research and development in India.

Explanation of Other Options:

(2) Cuttack

• Although Cuttack has important agricultural research facilities, such as the National Rice Research Institute (NRRI), it is not the location of the Directorate of Rice Research.

(3) Patna

• Patna has agricultural research institutions, but it is not the location of the Directorate of Rice Research.

(4) Andhra Pradesh

• While Andhra Pradesh is an important rice-growing region, the Directorate of Rice Research is specifically located in Hyderabad, which is in the state of Telangana.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because the correct location for the Directorate of Rice Research is indeed listed among the options.

Therefore, the Directorate of Rice Research is located in Hyderabad, making option (1) the correct choice.

11. Crop Insurance Scheme in India was started in the year: –

(1) 1981

(2) 1985

(3) 1987

(4) 1992

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (1) 1981

• The Crop Insurance Scheme in India, known as the Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme (CCIS), was introduced in 1985, not 1981. However, pilot schemes were experimented with as early as 1979-1980, and broader implementation began in the early 1980s. Therefore, the confusion may arise from the introduction of pilot programs and full-scale implementation. Given the context, 1985 is typically recognized as the starting year of the official national scheme.

Explanation of Other Options:

(2) 1985

• The Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme (CCIS) was indeed introduced in 1985. This would actually be the correct year for the introduction of the scheme that provided crop insurance to farmers in India.

(3) 1987

• This year does not correspond to the introduction of the Crop Insurance Scheme. The scheme was already operational by this time.

(4) 1992

• By 1992, the scheme had been operational for several years, and efforts were being made to improve and expand it.

(5) None of these

• This option would be correct in the sense that 1985 is not listed among the options provided in this particular question.

Given this clarification, (2) 1985 is the correct answer for when the Crop Insurance Scheme in India was officially started. The Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme (CCIS) was introduced in that year.

12. Best planning is concerned with: –

(1) Fixing of objective

(2) Determining the strategies policy

(3) Prescribing the procedures for future action

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) All of the above

• Best planning encompasses a comprehensive approach that includes:

(1) Fixing of objectives

• Establishing clear goals and objectives is the first step in the planning process. It provides direction and sets the targets that the organization or project aims to achieve.

(2) Determining the strategies policy

• Formulating strategies and policies is essential to outline the approach and methods that will be used to achieve the set objectives. This involves decision-making and policy development to guide actions and resource allocation.

(3) Prescribing the procedures for future action

• Prescribing detailed procedures and action plans ensures that there is a clear roadmap for implementing strategies and achieving objectives. This includes defining specific tasks, timelines, responsibilities, and processes to follow.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Fixing of objective

• While fixing objectives is a crucial part of planning, it is not the only aspect. Effective planning also involves strategies and procedures.

(2) Determining the strategies policy

• This is an important component of planning, but best planning goes beyond just determining strategies. It includes setting objectives and prescribing procedures.

(3) Prescribing the procedures for future action

• Prescribing procedures is essential, but it alone does not constitute complete planning. Objectives and strategies must also be established.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because best planning indeed involves fixing objectives, determining strategies, and prescribing procedures.

Therefore, best planning is concerned with all of the above components, making option (4) the correct choice.

13. Value addition by processing function in India in percentage is : –

(1) 3

(4)9

(2) 5

(3) 7

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (1) 3

• The value addition by processing function in India is relatively low, around 3%. This indicates that the majority of agricultural produce in India is sold in raw form rather than being processed to add value. The processing industry in India has a significant potential for growth, and increasing the level of value addition could greatly benefit the agricultural sector and overall economy.

Explanation of Other Options:

(2) 5

• While 5% would indicate a higher level of value addition than the current average, it is not accurate for the present context.

(3) 7

• This percentage would reflect a significant improvement in value addition through processing, but it is not the current reality in India.

(4) 9

• A 9% value addition would be a substantial increase from the actual figures. This level of processing is not currently achieved in India.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because 3% is the correct and approximate figure for value addition by processing in India.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3%, making option (1) the right choice.

13 In which year National Agricultural Credit Fund was established?

(1) 1953

(2) 1954

(3) 1955

(4) 1956

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) 1956

• The National Agricultural Credit Fund (NACF) was established in 1956. It was created to provide credit facilities and financial support to farmers and agricultural activities in India. The fund aimed to enhance agricultural productivity by ensuring timely and adequate credit availability to farmers across the country.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) 1953

• This year does not correspond to the establishment of the National Agricultural Credit Fund.

(2) 1954

• The NACF was not established in 1954.

(3) 1955

• Similarly, 1955 is not the correct year for the establishment of the National Agricultural Credit Fund.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because the correct year, 1956, is listed among the options provided.

Therefore, the National Agricultural Credit Fund was established in the year 1956, making option (4) the correct choice.

15 “Cooperation has failed in India but must succeed” was a statement made by the Committee under the Chairmanship of: –

(1) A.M. Khusro

(2) A.D. Gorwala

(3) R.G. Saraya

(4) D.R. Gadgil

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) D.R. Gadgil

• The statement “Cooperation has failed in India but must succeed” was famously made by the Committee under the Chairmanship of D.R. Gadgil. This committee was appointed to study the cooperative movement in India and recommend reforms to strengthen and improve its effectiveness.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) A.M. Khusro

• A.M. Khusro was an economist, but he is not specifically known for chairing a committee on cooperatives with this statement.

(2) A.D. Gorwala

• A.D. Gorwala was a prominent economist and planner, but he is not associated with this particular committee and statement.

(3) R.G. Saraya

• R.G. Saraya was a noted agricultural economist, but he is not known for chairing a committee that made this specific statement.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because D.R. Gadgil is indeed associated with the statement and the committee that made it.

Therefore, the correct answer is D.R. Gadgil, making option (4) the right choice.

16 Which of the following breeds is the highest milk producer in the world?

(1) Jersey

(2) Red Sindhi

(3) Red Dane

(4) Holstein Friesian

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Holstein Friesian

• Holstein Friesian is widely regarded as the highest milk-producing breed of cattle in the world. These cows are known for their high milk yield, which averages around 25,000 pounds (around 11,000 liters) of milk per lactation period. They are popular in many dairy farming regions globally due to their ability to produce large quantities of milk efficiently.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Jersey

• Jersey cattle are also known for their milk production, but they typically produce less milk compared to Holstein Friesians. They are valued for the high butterfat content in their milk.

(2) Red Sindhi

• Red Sindhi cattle are native to the Sindh region in Pakistan and India. They are used for both milk and meat production but are not as renowned for their milk production compared to Holstein Friesians.

(3) Red Dane

• There is no specific breed known as Red Dane in the context of dairy cattle. This option does not apply to the highest milk producer.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because Holstein Friesian is recognized as the highest milk producer among the listed options.

Therefore, Holstein Friesian (option 4) is the correct answer as the highest milk-producing breed in the world.

17 Aseel is a breed of:-

(1) Duck

(2) Turkey

(3) Hen

(4) Guineafowl

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (3) Hen

• Aseel is a breed of domestic chicken (hen) known for its distinctive appearance and fighting qualities. They are primarily raised for their meat and are particularly popular in South Asia, especially in countries like India and Pakistan, where they are used in traditional co*ckfighting.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Duck

• Aseel is not a breed of duck. Ducks and chickens belong to different species within the bird family.

(2) Turkey

• Similarly, Aseel is not a breed of turkey. Turkeys are larger birds belonging to a different species.

(4) Guineafowl

• Guineafowl are also distinct from chickens and ducks, and Aseel is not a breed of guineafowl.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because Aseel is indeed a breed of domestic chicken (hen).

Therefore, Aseel is correctly identified as a breed of hen (option 3).

18 Percentage optimum moisture content for paddy storage is : –

(1) 6

(2) 8

(3) 12

(4) 16

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (2) 8

• The optimum moisture content for storing paddy (rice) to prevent deterioration and maintain quality is around 8%. This level of moisture content helps to minimize the risk of mold growth, insect infestation, and fungal infections during storage.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) 6

• A moisture content of 6% is too low for storing paddy because it may lead to excessive drying and loss of grain quality.

(3) 12

• A moisture content of 12% is higher than the optimal level for paddy storage. It can lead to problems such as mold growth and reduced shelf life.

(4) 16

• A moisture content of 16% is significantly higher than the optimal level for paddy storage and can promote fungal growth and deterioration of grain quality.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because 8% is the correct and recognized optimal moisture content for paddy storage.

Therefore, the percentage optimum moisture content for paddy storage is 8%, making option (2) the correct choice.

19 Sprinkler method of irrigation is most suitable for : –

(1) undulated soil

(2) well-levelled soil

(3) heavy soil

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) All of the above

• The sprinkler method of irrigation can be adapted to various types of soils and terrains, making it versatile and widely applicable. Here’s why it is suitable for each type of soil:

1. Undulated soil: Sprinklers can distribute water evenly over undulated or sloped terrain, ensuring that water reaches all areas of the field effectively.
2. Well-levelled soil: On well-levelled soil, sprinklers can also distribute water uniformly, covering the entire area without water pooling in low spots or running off from high spots.
3. Heavy soil: Sprinklers are effective on heavy soils as well because they can deliver water evenly, helping to avoid waterlogging and ensuring that moisture reaches the plant roots effectively.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Undulated soil: As mentioned, sprinklers are suitable for undulated soil because they can be adjusted to deliver water uniformly across varying elevations.

(2) Well-levelled soil: Sprinklers work well on well-levelled soil because they can be positioned to cover the entire field evenly without water wastage.

(3) Heavy soil: Sprinklers are beneficial for heavy soils because they help in controlling the application rate and preventing waterlogging, which is a common issue with heavy soils.

(5) None of these: This option is incorrect because sprinkler irrigation is suitable for undulated soil, well-levelled soil, and heavy soil, as indicated by option (4).

Therefore, the sprinkler method of irrigation is indeed suitable for all of the above conditions, making option (4) the correct choice.

20 Straight line method of estimating annual depreciates of tractor is : –

(1) Depreciating the tractor to zero at the end of its useful life

(2) Larger amount during early life

(3) Decreasing amount during later life

(4) Equal amount each year during its useful life

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Equal amount each year during its useful life

• The straight-line method of depreciation allocates an equal amount of depreciation expense to each year of the asset’s useful life. This means that the depreciation expense remains constant annually, spreading the total depreciation evenly over the useful life of the asset.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Option (1): Depreciation the tractor to zero at the end of its useful life is not a characteristic of the straight-line method. Instead, it refers to a different depreciation method, such as the declining balance method.
• Option (2): Larger amount during early life is also not characteristic of the straight-line method. This describes the declining balance or accelerated depreciation methods.
• Option (3): Decreasing amount during later life does not apply to the straight-line method. This is characteristic of methods like the sum-of-years’ digits or double declining balance methods.
• Option (5): None of these is incorrect in this context because option (4) accurately describes the straight-line method.

Therefore, the straight-line method of estimating annual depreciation involves allocating an equal amount of depreciation expense each year during its useful life, making option (4) the correct choice.

21. Symptoms of citrus canker can appear on which of the plant parts?

(1) Leaves

(2) Fruits

(3) Branch

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) All of the above

• Citrus canker, caused by the bacterium Xanthom*onas citri, can manifest symptoms on various parts of citrus plants. These symptoms include:

1. Leaves: Citrus canker causes raised, corky lesions on leaves, which may have a water-soaked appearance initially.
2. Fruits: Infected fruits develop lesions that are usually raised, rough, and can cause fruit drop and reduced marketability.
3. Branches: In severe cases, canker lesions can also affect the branches of citrus trees, leading to dieback and reduced vigor.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Leaves: Symptoms on leaves are characteristic of citrus canker infection, as described.

(2) Fruits: Infected fruits show visible symptoms of citrus canker, affecting their appearance and quality.

(3) Branch: Branches can also be affected by citrus canker, especially when infections spread through the vascular system.

(5) None of these: This option is incorrect because citrus canker can indeed affect all of the listed plant parts.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – all of the above – as symptoms of citrus canker can appear on leaves, fruits, and branches of citrus plants.

22 Crop rotation is suggested primarily against: –

(1) Airborne diseases

(2) Seedborne diseases

(3) Aphid-borne diseases

(4) Soilborne diseases

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Soilborne diseases

• Crop rotation is a farming practice where different crops are grown in the same area in sequential seasons or years. One of the primary purposes of crop rotation is to manage and reduce the incidence of soilborne diseases. These are diseases caused by pathogens that live in the soil and can affect the roots or underground parts of plants.

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Airborne diseases

• Crop rotation is not specifically aimed at controlling diseases spread through the air. These diseases are typically managed through other methods such as sanitation, fungicides, or resistant crop varieties.

(2) Seedborne diseases

• While crop rotation can indirectly reduce some seedborne diseases by interrupting the lifecycle of pathogens, it is not its primary purpose.

(3) Aphid-borne diseases

• Diseases spread by aphids are managed through other means such as insecticides, biological control, or resistant crop varieties, not crop rotation.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because crop rotation is specifically suggested against soilborne diseases, making option (4) the correct choice.

Therefore, crop rotation is primarily suggested against soilborne diseases, helping to manage and reduce their impact on crops over successive seasons.

23. Nozzle is a part of : –

(1) Hand compression sprayer

(2) Cyno gas pump

(3) Rotary duster

(4) Both (1) and (2)

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Both (1) and (2)

• A nozzle is a component used for directing and controlling the flow of liquid or gas in various agricultural equipment. It is found in both hand compression sprayers (option 1) and cyno gas pumps (option 2).

Explanation of Other Options:

(1) Hand compression sprayer

• Hand compression sprayers are used for applying liquid pesticides, herbicides, or fertilizers, and they utilize a nozzle to spray the solution onto crops or plants.

(2) Cyno gas pump

• Cyno gas pumps are used to apply gaseous fumigants or pesticides, and they also require a nozzle to direct the gas into the treatment area.

(3) Rotary duster

• A rotary duster is used for applying solid pesticides or fertilizers in granular form and typically uses a different mechanism for dispersion, not a nozzle.

(5) None of these

• This option is incorrect because nozzles are indeed parts of hand compression sprayers and cyno gas pumps.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – both (1) and (2) – as nozzles are integral parts of both hand compression sprayers and cyno gas pumps.

24 At which stage of Gram crop is damaged by Helicoverpa armigera?

(1) Germination stage

(2) Pod formation stage

(3) Maturity stage

(4) Both (2) and (3)

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Both (2) and (3)

• Helicoverpa armigera can damage gram (chickpea) crop during both the pod formation stage and the maturity stage.

Explanation of Options:

• Germination stage (Option 1): Helicoverpa armigera generally does not damage the crop at the germination stage because it primarily feeds on pods and seeds.
• Pod formation stage (Option 2): This is a critical stage when the larvae of Helicoverpa armigera bore into the pods and feed on developing seeds, causing significant damage to the crop.
• maturity stageM (Option 3): During the maturity stage, the larvae continue to feed on mature pods and seeds, leading to further yield loss and quality deterioration.
• Both (2) and (3) (Option 4): This option correctly identifies that Helicoverpa armigera can cause damage during both the pod formation stage and the maturity stage of the gram crop.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because Helicoverpa armigera does indeed damage gram crop during the pod formation and maturity stages.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – Both (2) and (3) – as Helicoverpa armigera is known to damage gram crop during both pod formation and maturity stages.

25 Plant wilt primarily due to excessive: –

(1) Absorption

(2) Respiration

(3) Evaporation

(4) Transpiration

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Transpiration

• Wilting in plants occurs when there is excessive transpiration, which is the process of water loss from the leaves through stomata. When plants lose water faster than they can absorb it from the soil, the cells lose turgor pressure, causing the plant to wilt.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Absorption (Option 1): Excessive absorption of water by roots does not typically cause wilting. In fact, plants need water absorption to maintain turgor pressure in cells.
• Respiration (Option 2): Respiration is the process of energy production within cells and does not directly cause wilting.
• Evaporation (Option 3): While evaporation contributes to water loss, it is the result of transpiration through the leaves that leads to wilting.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because excessive transpiration (option 4) is indeed the primary cause of plant wilting.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – Transpiration – as plants wilt primarily due to excessive water loss through transpiration from their leaves.

26 Drought resistance in plants is related to: –

(1) Negative water potential

(2) Positive water potential

(3) Surplus water

(4) Both (1) and (2)

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Both (1) and (2)

• Drought resistance in plants is associated with their ability to maintain adequate hydration and turgor pressure despite low water availability. This involves mechanisms related to both negative water potential (option 1) and positive water potential (option 2).

Explanation of Other Options:

• Negative water potential (Option 1): This is related to the ability of plants to maintain water uptake and hydration even under conditions of low soil water availability, helping them withstand drought stress.
• Positive water potential (Option 2): Plants with the ability to maintain positive water potential in their cells can resist wilting and maintain cellular functions even when water availability is limited.
• Surplus water (Option 3): Surplus water is not related to drought resistance. In fact, plants that are adapted to drought typically have mechanisms to conserve water rather than depend on surplus water.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because drought resistance in plants is indeed related to both negative and positive water potentials, as stated in option (4).

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – Both (1) and (2) – as drought resistance in plants involves mechanisms related to both negative and positive water potentials to cope with water stress.

27 Integrated Weed Management (IWM) includes: –

(1) Tillage Operations

(2) Use of herbicides

(3) Close planting

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) All of the above

• Integrated Weed Management (IWM) is an approach that combines various weed control methods to achieve effective and sustainable weed management. It includes:

1. Tillage Operations (Option 1): Tillage involves mechanical cultivation of soil to uproot or bury weeds, thereby reducing their growth and seed germination.
2. Use of herbicides (Option 2): Herbicides are chemicals specifically designed to control or eliminate weeds. They are an important component of IWM when used judiciously and in combination with other methods.
3. Close planting (Option 3): Close planting or high plant density can help shade out weeds, reducing their access to light and inhibiting their growth.

Explanation of Other Options:

• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because IWM includes all the methods listed in options (1), (2), and (3).

Therefore, Integrated Weed Management (IWM) integrates multiple approaches such as tillage operations, herbicide use, and close planting to effectively manage weeds, making option (4) the correct choice.

28 How many elements are essential for the growth and development of plants?

(1) 14

(2) 15

(3) 16

(4) 17

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (1) 14

• There are 14 essential elements that are required for the normal growth and development of plants. These elements are categorized into two groups:

1. Primary nutrients: Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), Potassium (K)
2. Secondary nutrients: Calcium (Ca), Magnesium (Mg), Sulfur (S)
3. Micronutrients (trace elements): Iron (Fe), Manganese (Mn), Zinc (Zn), Copper (Cu), Boron (B), Molybdenum (Mo), Chlorine (Cl), Nickel (Ni)

These elements are essential because they are directly involved in various physiological and biochemical processes necessary for plant growth, such as photosynthesis, nutrient transport, and enzyme activation.

Explanation of Other Options:

• 15 (Option 2), 16 (Option 3), and 17 (Option 4): These options are incorrect because the correct number of essential elements for plants is 14, as stated.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because the correct answer, 14, is provided in option (1).

Therefore, the correct answer is option (1) – 14 – as there are 14 essential elements required for the growth and development of plants.

29 The microbial conversion of nitrate into chemical nitrogen is called: –

(1) Denitrification

(2) Nitrate reduction

(3) Nitrogen fixation

(4) Both (1) and (3)

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (2) Nitrate reduction

• The process where microbes convert nitrate (NO3-) into chemical nitrogen is known as nitrate reduction. In this process, bacteria in the soil use nitrate as an electron acceptor and reduce it to various forms of nitrogen, such as nitrite (NO2-) or nitrogen gas (N2).

Explanation of Other Options:

• Denitrification (Option 1): Denitrification is the process where nitrate (NO3-) is reduced further to nitrogen gas (N2) or nitrous oxide (N2O), leading to loss of nitrogen from the soil into the atmosphere.
• Nitrogen fixation (Option 3): Nitrogen fixation is the biological process where atmospheric nitrogen (N2) is converted into ammonia (NH3) or ammonium (NH4+) by nitrogen-fixing bacteria or through industrial processes.
• Both (1) and (3) (Option 4): This option is incorrect because denitrification (Option 1) and nitrogen fixation (Option 3) are different processes from nitrate reduction (Option 2).
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because nitrate reduction (Option 2) accurately describes the microbial conversion of nitrate into chemical nitrogen.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (2) – Nitrate reduction – as it specifically refers to the microbial process of converting nitrate into chemical nitrogen.

30 Which of the following micro-organism grows well in water logged soils?

(1) Clostridium

(2) Azotobacter

(3) Rhizobium

(4) Radiobacter

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (1) Clostridium

• Clostridium is a genus of anaerobic bacteria that can thrive in waterlogged or oxygen-deprived soils. These bacteria are capable of fermentative metabolism and can survive and grow under conditions where oxygen levels are low or absent, such as in waterlogged soils.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Azotobacter (Option 2): Azotobacter is a genus of aerobic nitrogen-fixing bacteria that generally prefer well-aerated soils for growth.
• Rhizobium (Option 3): Rhizobium is a genus of nitrogen-fixing bacteria that form symbiotic associations with leguminous plants. They are found in root nodules of these plants and require adequate oxygen levels for nitrogen fixation.
• Radiobacter (Option 4): Radiobacter (now known as Agrobacterium) is a genus of soil bacteria that generally prefer well-drained soils for growth.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because Clostridium (Option 1) is known to grow well in waterlogged soils.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (1) – Clostridium – as it is a microorganism that can thrive and grow in waterlogged soils due to its anaerobic metabolism.

31 The fertilizer called ‘Sona’ is: –

(1) Ammonium nitrate

(2) Urea

(3) Diammonium phosphate

(4) Calcium ammonium nitrate

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Calcium ammonium nitrate

• ‘Sona’ is a common name used for Calcium ammonium nitrate (CAN), which is a nitrogenous fertilizer containing both ammonium nitrate and calcium carbonate. It is known for its dual nutrient supply of nitrogen and calcium, which are essential for plant growth.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Ammonium nitrate (Option 1): Ammonium nitrate is a nitrogen fertilizer but is not referred to as ‘Sona’.
• Urea (Option 2): Urea is another nitrogen fertilizer, but it is not known as ‘Sona’.
• Diammonium phosphate (Option 3): Diammonium phosphate is a phosphorus fertilizer and does not go by the name ‘Sona’.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because ‘Sona’ is indeed another name for Calcium ammonium nitrate (Option 4).

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – Calcium ammonium nitrate – as it is the fertilizer commonly referred to as ‘Sona’.

32. Nitrification is a process of: –

(1) Reduction

(2) Hydrolysis

(3) Oxidation

(4) Both (1) and (3)

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (3) Oxidation

• Nitrification is the biological oxidation of ammonia (NH3) or ammonium (NH4+) to nitrite (NO2-) and then to nitrate (NO3-) by nitrifying bacteria in the soil. It is an aerobic process where ammonia is converted into nitrites and then further oxidized into nitrates.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Reduction (Option 1): Reduction is the opposite of oxidation and involves gaining electrons. Nitrification involves oxidation, not reduction.
• Hydrolysis (Option 2): Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction where water is used to break down compounds into simpler molecules. It is not the process involved in nitrification.
• Both (1) and (3) (Option 4): This option is incorrect because nitrification is specifically an oxidation process (Option 3), not a reduction process (Option 1).
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because nitrification is indeed an oxidation process, as stated in option (3).

Therefore, the correct answer is option (3) – Oxidation – as nitrification involves the biological oxidation of ammonia and ammonium into nitrites and nitrates by nitrifying bacteria in the soil.

33. Which one of the following crops is more responsive to zinc application ?

(1) Wheat

(2) Rapeseed

(3) Paddy (Rice)

(4) Moong (Mung bean)

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (3) Paddy (Rice)

• Rice (Paddy) is known to be more responsive to zinc application because zinc deficiency is common in rice-growing soils. Zinc plays a crucial role in various physiological processes of rice plants, including enzyme activity, protein synthesis, and carbohydrate metabolism. Zinc deficiency in rice can lead to reduced grain yield and quality. Therefore, applying zinc fertilizers to rice fields can significantly improve yield and quality.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Wheat (Option 1): Wheat also benefits from zinc application, but its response is typically not as pronounced as that of rice.
• Rapeseed (Option 2): Rapeseed can benefit from zinc fertilization, particularly in zinc-deficient soils, but its response may not be as significant as that of rice.
• Moong (Option 4): Moong (Mung bean) can also respond to zinc application, but like rapeseed, its responsiveness is generally not as prominent as that of rice.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because rice (paddy) is known to be responsive to zinc application.

In summary, among the options given, rice (paddy) is the crop that shows the highest responsiveness to zinc application due to its specific requirement for zinc during critical growth stages. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option (3) – Paddy (Rice).

34. The pH of alkaline soil is:

(1) 6

(2) 7

(3) 8

(4) 9

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) 9

• Alkaline soils have a pH above 7. A pH of 9 specifically indicates that the soil is strongly alkaline.

Explanation of Other Options:

• 6 (Option 1): A pH of 6 is slightly acidic.
• 7 (Option 2): A pH of 7 is neutral.
• 8 (Option 3): A pH of 8 is moderately alkaline.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because option (4) correctly identifies the pH range typical of alkaline soils.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – 9 – as it represents the pH range characteristic of alkaline soils.

35 The chemical formula of Gypsum is: –

(1) CaSO

(2) CaSO4.2

(3) CaSO.SH₂O

(4) CaSO4.2H₂O

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) CaSO4. 2 H₂O

• Gypsum is calcium sulfate dihydrate, which means it consists of calcium sulfate (CaSO4) combined with two molecules of water (2H₂O). Therefore, the correct chemical formula of Gypsum is CaSO4 · 2H₂O.

Explanation of Other Options:

• CaSO (Option 1): This option is incorrect because it is an incomplete formula and does not correctly represent Gypsum.
• CaSO4.2 (Option 2): This option is also incorrect as it does not specify the correct number of water molecules.
• CaSO.SH₂O (Option 3): This option is incorrect because it suggests a different structure and does not represent the correct chemical formula of Gypsum.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because option (4) provides the correct chemical formula for Gypsum.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – CaSO4 · 2 H₂O – as it accurately represents the chemical composition of Gypsum.

36 The forces responsible for the retention of soil water are:

(1) Cohesion

(2) Adhesion

(3) Cohesion and Adhesion both

(4) Both (1) and (2)

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Both (1) and (2)

• Soil water retention is influenced by both cohesion and adhesion:

o Cohesion: This is the attraction between water molecules themselves, allowing them to stick together. Cohesion helps water molecules remain as a continuous film or droplets in soil pores, preventing rapid drainage.

o Adhesion: This is the attraction between water molecules and the surfaces of soil particles. Adhesion allows water to adhere to soil particles, particularly to their surfaces and within their pores, against the force of gravity.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Cohesion (Option 1): Cohesion alone is important for water retention but is not sufficient without adhesion.
• Adhesion (Option 2): Adhesion alone is also important for water retention but is not sufficient without cohesion.
• Cohesion and Adhesion both (Option 3): This option is correct in stating that both cohesion and adhesion are responsible for water retention in soils.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because the correct answer is option (4), which correctly identifies both cohesion and adhesion as forces responsible for soil water retention.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – Both (1) and (2) – as both cohesion and adhesion play crucial roles in retaining soil water, ensuring availability for plants and soil health.

37 Seed viability is tested by:

(1) Tetrazolium test

(2) First count test

(3) Grow out test

(4) Both (1) and (3)

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Both (1) and (3)

• Tetrazolium test: This test is a widely used biochemical assay to determine seed viability. It involves staining seeds with a solution of tetrazolium chloride, which reacts with enzymes in living tissues to form a red-colored formazan dye. The intensity and pattern of staining indicate the viability of the seeds.
• Grow out test: This is a practical test where seeds are planted and observed for germination under controlled conditions. The percentage of seeds that germinate gives an indication of their viability.

Explanation of Other Options:

• First count test (Option 2): This test is not typically used for testing seed viability. It may refer to counting the number of seeds, but it is not a specific viability test.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because options (1) and (3) are commonly used methods for testing seed viability.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – Both (1) and (3) – as both the tetrazolium test and the grow out test are methods used to determine the viability of seeds, each providing complementary information about seed health and potential germination.

38 Which of the following can change the chromosome structure?

(1)Translocation

(2) Deletion

(3) Duplication

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) All of the above

• Translocation: This involves the exchange of chromosomal segments between non-hom*ologous chromosomes. It can lead to rearrangements in the genetic material.
• Deletion: This refers to the loss of a segment of a chromosome. It results in the loss of genetic material, which can alter the structure and function of the chromosome.
• Duplication: This occurs when a segment of a chromosome is duplicated. It results in extra copies of genes or entire regions of chromosomes, which can affect gene dosage and expression.

Explanation of Other Options:

• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because translocation, deletion, and duplication are all processes that can indeed change chromosome structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – All of the above – as all three processes (translocation, deletion, and duplication) are mechanisms that can alter the structure of chromosomes, potentially leading to genetic variations and abnormalities.

39. The use of induced mutation in crop improvemen is called :-

(1) Polyploid breeding

(2) Mutation breeding

(3) Heterosis breeding

(4) Molecular breeding

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (2) Mutation breeding

• Mutation breeding involves deliberately inducing mutations in crops using physical or chemical mutagens to generate genetic variability. This approach aims to create new traits or variations that can lead to improved crop varieties.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Polyploid breeding (Option 1): This involves creating polyploid plants with multiple sets of chromosomes. It is a different approach to increasing genetic variability but not specifically through induced mutations.
• Heterosis breeding (Option 3): Also known as hybrid breeding, it involves crossing genetically diverse parents to produce offspring with superior traits. It does not involve induced mutations.
• Molecular breeding (Option 4): This uses molecular techniques such as marker-assisted selection (MAS) to select for desired traits at the molecular level. It is not focused on inducing mutations.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because mutation breeding specifically refers to the deliberate induction of mutations in crops for improvement purposes.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (2) – Mutation breeding – as it specifically describes the use of induced mutations in crop improvement strategies to enhance genetic diversity and develop new traits in crops.

40. Which one of the following is not a Kharif crop?

(1) Groundnut

(2) Maize

(3) Linseed

(4) Paddy

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (3) Linseed

• Linseed, also known as flaxseed, is not typically considered a Kharif crop. It is usually grown during the Rabi season in India.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Groundnut (Option 1): Groundnut, also known as peanut, is a Kharif crop grown during the monsoon season in India.
• Maize (Option 2): Maize, or corn, is a Kharif crop commonly grown during the monsoon season.
• Paddy (Option 4): Paddy, or rice, is a quintessential Kharif crop extensively cultivated during the monsoon season in flooded fields.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because linseed is indeed not a Kharif crop, so the correct answer is option (3).

Therefore, the correct answer is option (3) – Linseed – as it is not typically grown as a Kharif crop in India.

41. In hybrid variety development, the male sterile line is represented as : –

(1) R-line

(2) B-line

(3) C-line

(4) A-line (5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) A-line

• In hybrid variety development, the male sterile line is often denoted as the A-line. This line is crucial in hybrid seed production because it does not produce viable pollen, ensuring that it does not self-pollinate or pollinate other plants. This allows for controlled cross-pollination with another line, typically the B-line or maintainer line, to produce hybrid seeds.

Explanation of Other Options:

• R-line (Option 1): R-line is not typically used to denote the male sterile line in hybrid seed production.
• B-line (Option 2): B-line is generally used to denote the maintainer line in hybrid seed production, which is used to maintain the male sterile line through generations.
• C-line (Option 3): C-line is not commonly used to denote the male sterile line in hybrid seed production.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because A-line is indeed used to represent the male sterile line in hybrid variety development.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – A-line – as it specifically denotes the male sterile line used in the production of hybrid varieties through controlled cross-pollination methods.

42. Which one is the variety of Gladiolus ?

(1) Jwala

(2) Gazal

(3) Priyadarshani

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) All of the above

• Jwala, Gazal, and Priyadarshani are all varieties of Gladiolus. Gladiolus is cultivated in many varieties with diverse colors and characteristics, making it popular in gardens and floral arrangements.

Explanation of Other Options:

• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because Jwala, Gazal, and Priyadarshani are indeed varieties of Gladiolus.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – All of the above – as all the listed names (Jwala, Gazal, and Priyadarshani) refer to different varieties of Gladiolus.

43 Which of the following is a pear shaped variety of tomato?

(1) Pant Bahar

(2) Pusa Ruby

(3) Hisar Lalima

(4) Punjab Chhuhara

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (5) None of these

(2) Explanation:

(3) None of the options provided (Pant Bahar, Pusa Ruby, Hisar Lalima, and Punjab Chhuhara) are pear-shaped varieties of tomatoes. Pear-shaped tomatoes are typically elongated and have a shape resembling a pear. Some common pear-shaped tomato varieties include ‘Roma’ and ‘San Marzano’.

(4) Since none of the options listed match the description of a pear-shaped tomato variety, the correct answer is (5) None of these.

44. UPAS-120 is a variety of: –

(1) Wheat

(2) Urd

(3) Gram

(4) Pigeon pea

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Pigeon pea

• UPAS-120 is a variety of pigeon pea (Cajanus cajan), also known as arhar or tur dal in India. Pigeon pea is a pulse crop widely cultivated for its edible seeds, which are rich in protein and used in various culinary preparations.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Wheat (Option 1): UPAS-120 is not a variety of wheat.
• Urd (Option 2): Urd refers to black gram (Vigna mungo), which is a different pulse crop.
• Gram (Option 3): Gram refers to chickpea (Cicer arietinum), another pulse crop.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because UPAS-120 is indeed a variety of pigeon pea.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – Pigeon pea – as UPAS-120 is specifically a variety of this pulse crop.

45 The components of organic farming are :-

(1) Organic manure

(2) Bio-fertilizers

(3) Bio-pesticides

(4) All of the above

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) All of the above

• Organic farming emphasizes the use of natural inputs and techniques to enhance soil fertility and manage pests. The components of organic farming typically include:

o Organic manure: Natural materials such as compost, farmyard manure, and green manure used to improve soil structure and provide nutrients to crops.

o Bio-fertilizers: Microbial inoculants that fix nitrogen or solubilize phosphorus in the soil, such as Rhizobium, Azotobacter, and phosphate-solubilizing bacteria.

o Bio-pesticides: Naturally occurring substances or organisms used to control pests and diseases, including botanical extracts, microbial pesticides, and beneficial insects.

Explanation of Other Options:

• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because all the listed components (organic manure, bio-fertilizers, and bio-pesticides) are indeed integral to organic farming practices.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – All of the above – as all these components are essential aspects of organic farming, promoting sustainability and environmental stewardship in agriculture.

46 The rotation of maize, potato, wheat, and moong is an example of:

(1) Intercropping

(2) Parallel cropping

(3) Relay cropping

(4) Both (1) and (3)

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (5) None of these

Explanation:The sequence of crops mentioned (maize, potato, wheat, moong) represents a cropping pattern known as crop rotation. Crop rotation involves growing different crops in sequential seasons or years on the same piece of land. The primary purpose of crop rotation is to improve soil health, manage pests and diseases, and optimize nutrient use efficiency.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Intercropping (Option 1): Intercropping involves growing two or more crops simultaneously in the same field. It aims to maximize land use efficiency and reduce risk by diversifying crop types.
• Parallel cropping (Option 2): Parallel cropping is not a recognized term in agricultural cropping systems. It does not describe the sequential rotation of crops.
• Relay cropping (Option 3): Relay cropping is a practice where a second crop is planted into a standing first crop before it is harvested. This option does not apply to the given cropping pattern.
• Both (1) and (3) (Option 4): This option is incorrect because neither intercropping nor relay cropping accurately describes the sequential rotation of maize, potato, wheat, and moong.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (5) – None of these – as the cropping pattern described (maize-potato-wheat-moong) is best categorized as crop rotation rather than any of the other cropping systems listed.

47 The time of planting the main crop of potato in the Northern plains of India is typically:

(1) First fortnight of October

(2) Second fortnight of October

(3) First fortnight of November

(4) Second fortnight of November

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (2) Second fortnight of October

• In the Northern plains of India, the main crop of potato is usually planted during the second fortnight of October. This timing allows the crop to take advantage of the cooler weather and adequate soil moisture before the onset of winter.

Explanation of Other Options:

• First fortnight of October (Option 1): Planting in the first fortnight of October may also be suitable, but the second fortnight is generally preferred for better weather conditions.
• First fortnight of November (Option 3): Planting in the first fortnight of November may be too late as it could expose the crop to colder temperatures and risk frost damage.
• Second fortnight of November (Option 4): Planting in the second fortnight of November is generally too late for potato planting in the Northern plains as it might coincide with the onset of winter, affecting crop growth and development.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because the second fortnight of October is generally considered the optimal time for planting the main crop of potato in the Northern plains of India.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (2) – Second fortnight of October – as it aligns with the typical planting schedule for potatoes in this region to ensure optimal growth conditions before winter sets in.

48 Sugandha-5 is a variety of: –

(1) Maize

(2) Rice

(3) Moong

(4) Pea

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (2) Rice

• Sugandha-5 is a variety of rice. It is known for its aroma and is cultivated for its grain quality and yield characteristics.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Maize (Option 1): Maize varieties are not named Sugandha-5.
• Moong (Option 3): Moong, or mung bean, varieties are not named Sugandha-5.
• Pea (Option 4): Pea varieties are not named Sugandha-5.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because Sugandha-5 is indeed a variety of rice.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (2) – Rice – as Sugandha-5 is specifically a rice variety known for its aromatic qualities and suitability for cultivation in certain regions.

49 Phalaris minor weed is an associated weed with

crop :-

(1) Wheat

(2) Maize

(3) Rice

(4) Chickpea

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (1) Wheat

• Phalaris minor is a problematic weed that commonly infests wheat fields. It competes with wheat plants for nutrients, water, and light, reducing crop yield if not managed effectively.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Maize (Option 2): Phalaris minor is not typically associated with maize.
• Rice (Option 3): Rice fields are not typically affected by Phalaris minor.
• Chickpea (Option 4): While chickpea fields can have their own set of weed challenges, Phalaris minor is not commonly associated with chickpea cultivation.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because Phalaris minor is indeed associated with wheat crops.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (1) – Wheat – as Phalaris minor is a significant weed problem in wheat cultivation, affecting yield and quality if not adequately managed.

50 Which of the following manure is considered as bio-fertilizer ?

(1) Farm yard manure

(2) Compost

(3) Green manure

(4) Blue green algae

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Blue green algae

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (4) Blue green algae

• Blue green algae (cyanobacteria) are considered as bio-fertilizers. They have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can utilize. Blue green algae are used in paddy fields and other crops to improve soil fertility and reduce the dependency on chemical fertilizers.

Explanation of Other Options:

• Farm yard manure (Option 1): Farm yard manure is organic matter derived from animal waste, which improves soil structure and nutrient content, but it is not typically classified as a bio-fertilizer.
• Compost (Option 2): Compost is decomposed organic matter that enriches soil fertility, but it is not classified as a bio-fertilizer.
• Green manure (Option 3): Green manure refers to plants grown and then plowed back into the soil to improve fertility, but it is not a bio-fertilizer itself.
• None of these (Option 5): This option is incorrect because blue green algae are indeed considered as bio-fertilizers.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (4) – Blue green algae – as they are specifically used as bio-fertilizers due to their nitrogen-fixing capabilities and beneficial effects on soil fertility.

IBPS AFO Mains previous year 2016 question paper

1. Barium carbonate and aluminum phosphate are generally used as:-

(1) Rodenticide

(2) Fumigant

(3) Avicide

(4) Fungicide

(5) Herbicide

Correct Answer: (1) Rodenticide

Explanation:

1. Rodenticide: Barium carbonate and aluminium phosphate are both used as rodenticides, which are substances used to kill rodents.

Now, let’s discuss why the other options are not correct:

2. Fumigant: Fumigants are chemicals that are used to produce fumes that are toxic to pests such as insects, but barium carbonate and aluminium phosphate are not typically used for this purpose.
3. Avicide: Avicides are substances used to kill birds. Neither barium carbonate nor aluminium phosphate are commonly used as avicides.
4. Fungicide: Fungicides are substances used to control fungal diseases in plants. Barium carbonate and aluminium phosphate do not have significant fungicidal properties.
5. Herbicide: Herbicides are chemicals used to control or kill unwanted plants (weeds). Barium carbonate and aluminium phosphate are not used as herbicides.

Therefore, based on their common applications and properties, the correct answer is indeed option (1) Rodenticide.

2. The movement and filtration of water through soils and permeable rock is termed as: –

(1) Osmosis

(3) Sedimentation

(5) Diffusion

(2) Percolation

(4) Neutralization

Correct Answer: (2) Percolation

Explanation:

1. Osmosis: Osmosis is the movement of water molecules through a selectively permeable membrane from a region of low solute concentration to a region of high solute concentration.
2. Percolation: Percolation refers to the movement of water through soil or permeable rock layers, typically driven by gravity. It involves the downward movement of water through pores and spaces in the material.
3. Sedimentation: Sedimentation is the process by which particles settle out of a fluid (e.g., water) in which they are suspended and come to rest on the bottom of the container or channel.
4. Neutralization: Neutralization is a chemical reaction in which an acid and a base react to form a salt and water.
5. Diffusion: Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, resulting in equal distribution.

Conclusion:

The correct term for the movement and filtration of water through soils and permeable rock is percolation (option 2). This term specifically describes the process where water moves through the pores and gaps in soil or rock layers under the influence of gravity.

3. Symptoms of which nutrient deficiency appear first on older leaves and then advance up the stem to younger leaves?

(1) Nitrogen deficiency

(2) Phosphorus deficiency

(3) Potassium deficiency

(4) Magnesium deficiency

(5) Calcium deficiency

Correct Answer: (4) Magnesium deficiency

Explanation:

1. Nitrogen deficiency: Symptoms typically appear first on older leaves, which turn yellow (chlorosis) starting from the tips and edges, progressing towards the center. However, nitrogen deficiency does not necessarily advance up the stem to younger leaves.
2. Phosphorus deficiency: Symptoms include dark green leaves with purple discoloration on the underside of leaves. This deficiency does not usually progress from older leaves to younger leaves up the stem.
3. Potassium deficiency: Symptoms include yellowing and necrosis of leaf edges, but these symptoms do not typically start on older leaves and advance upwards.
4. Magnesium deficiency: Symptoms often start as interveinal chlorosis (yellowing between leaf veins) on older leaves and then progress up the stem to affect younger leaves if the deficiency persists. This matches the description given in the question.
5. Calcium deficiency: Symptoms include distorted leaf tips and margins, but they do not necessarily follow the pattern of starting on older leaves and advancing up the stem to younger leaves.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (4) Magnesium deficiency. This deficiency causes symptoms to appear first on older leaves as yellowing between veins (interveinal chlorosis) and can advance up the stem to affect younger leaves if the deficiency is severe or prolonged.

4. Little leaf in mango, litchi, and cashew is due to deficiency of : –

(1) Zinc

(4) Nitrogen

(2) Calcium

(5) Phosphorus

(3) Iron

Correct Answer: (1) Zinc

Explanation:

1. Zinc deficiency: Zinc deficiency causes a disorder known as little leaf or rosetting in mango, litchi, and cashew trees. Little leaf symptoms include reduced leaf size, interveinal chlorosis (yellowing between the veins), and sometimes a puckered or distorted appearance of the leaves.
2. Calcium deficiency: Calcium deficiency does not typically result in symptoms resembling little leaf. Calcium deficiency in plants usually leads to distorted growth in growing points rather than uniform reduction in leaf size.
3. Iron deficiency: Iron deficiency causes chlorosis (yellowing) of younger leaves while leaving veins green, which is different from the symptoms of little leaf.
4. Nitrogen deficiency: Nitrogen deficiency leads to overall stunted growth and pale green or yellowish leaves but does not cause the specific symptoms associated with little leaf.
5. Phosphorus deficiency: Phosphorus deficiency results in stunted growth and dark green leaves that may have purple discoloration, but it does not cause little leaf symptoms.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (1) Zinc. Little leaf in mango, litchi, and cashew is primarily due to zinc deficiency, which results in characteristic symptoms such as small, narrow leaves with interveinal chlorosis and overall reduced leaf size.

5. In north India, rivers are perennial during the period of :-

(1) North east monsoon

(2) South West monsoon

(3) Six months

(4) Whole year

(5) Both 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (5) Both 2 and 3

Explanation:

1. North east monsoon: The northeast monsoon typically affects parts of South India (particularly Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka) during the months of October to December. It does not significantly impact North India.
2. South West monsoon: The southwest monsoon, which occurs from June to September, is the primary rainy season for North India. This monsoon brings the majority of the annual rainfall to the region, replenishing rivers and ensuring their perennial flow during and after the monsoon season.
3. Six months: This option likely refers to the period when rivers in North India remain perennial due to the influence of the southwest monsoon, which lasts approximately six months (June to September).
4. Whole year: Some rivers in North India, especially major rivers like the Ganges and its tributaries, can remain perennial throughout the year due to a combination of snowmelt from the Himalayas and sustained groundwater recharge from monsoonal rains.
5. Both 2 and 3: This option correctly identifies that rivers in North India are perennial during the South West monsoon (option 2) and for around six months after the monsoon (option 3).

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (5) Both 2 and 3. Rivers in North India are perennial during the period of the South West monsoon (June to September) and for several months following the monsoon due to sustained groundwater recharge and runoff from monsoonal rains.

6. Propping in Banana is : –

(1) Pruning the leaves of the banana plant

(2) Giving support to the banana plant

(3) Burying green manuring crops in the soil before planting banana

(4) Growing bigger tree at the front of the banana plant to give it shade

(5) Growing green manuring crops before planting banana

Correct Answer: (2) Giving support to the banana plant

Explanation:

1. Pruning the leaves of the banana plant: This is not referred to as “propping.” Pruning involves removing unwanted or dead parts of the plant to promote healthier growth.
2. Giving support to the banana plant: Propping in banana cultivation involves providing physical support to the banana plant to prevent it from toppling over due to the weight of the fruit bunches. This support can include tying the plants to stakes or using other support structures.
3. Burying green manuring crops in the soil before planting banana: This is unrelated to propping. Green manuring involves growing and then incorporating green plants into the soil to improve fertility.
4. Growing a bigger tree at the front of the banana plant to give it shade: This practice is known as providing shade or intercropping for heat-sensitive plants but is not referred to as “propping.”
5. Growing green manuring crops before planting banana: Again, this is related to green manuring practices and not specific to propping banana plants.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (2) Giving support to the banana plant. Propping in banana cultivation refers to providing physical support to the plants to prevent them from falling over under the weight of the fruit bunches, which is a common practice in commercial banana farming.

7 Khapra beetle is pest of: –

(1) Seedling

(2) Standing crops

(3) Vine plants

(4) Stored grain

(5) Potato

Correct Answer: (4) Stored grain

Explanation:

1. Seedling: Khapra beetle does not typically infest seedlings. It primarily targets stored grains rather than crops in the early stages of growth.
2. Standing crops: Khapra beetle does not usually infest standing crops in the field. It is more commonly found in stored grains after harvesting.
3. Vine plants: Khapra beetle is not known to be a significant pest of vine plants. Its primary habitat is stored grains.
4. Stored grain: The Khapra beetle (Trogoderma granarium) is a serious pest of stored grains, especially wheat, rice, barley, and other cereals. It can cause significant damage by feeding on grains and contaminating them with its feces and cast skins.
5. Potato: While some pests can affect potatoes, the Khapra beetle specifically targets stored grains rather than potatoes.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (4) Stored grain. The Khapra beetle is notorious for infesting stored grains and is a major concern for grain storage facilities due to its destructive feeding habits and ability to survive in adverse conditions for long periods.

8 Milk fever is also known as:-

(1) Foot-and-mouth disease

(2) Monogenesis

(3) Anthrax

(4) Lumpy jaw

(5) Parturient paresis

Correct Answer: (5) Parturient paresis

Explanation:

1. Foot-and-mouth disease: This is a viral disease affecting cloven-hoofed animals such as cattle, pigs, sheep, and goats. It causes fever and blisters in the mouth and on the feet but is not related to milk fever.
2. Monogenesis: This term is not commonly used in veterinary medicine to describe milk fever or any specific disease.
3. Anthrax: Anthrax is a bacterial disease that primarily affects herbivores and can cause severe illness or death. It is not related to milk fever.
4. Lumpy jaw: Lumpy jaw (actinomycosis) is a bacterial infection that causes firm, painless swellings on the jawbones of cattle. It is not associated with milk fever.
5. Parturient paresis: Also known as milk fever, this is a metabolic disorder that affects dairy cows shortly after calving. It is characterized by low blood calcium levels (hypocalcemia), which can lead to muscle weakness, recumbency, and other symptoms.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (5) Parturient paresis. Milk fever is a common term used to describe parturient paresis, which occurs in dairy cows during or shortly after calving due to a sudden demand for calcium for milk production, leading to low blood calcium levels and associated symptoms.

9. The apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India is: –
10. NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development)
11. SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India)
12. NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India)
13. AGMARK (Agmarknet)
14. NACM (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing)

Correct Answer: (3) NAFED

Explanation:

1. NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development): NABARD is primarily responsible for providing credit and other financial services to agriculture and rural sectors in India. It is not the apex organization for marketing cooperatives.
2. SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India): SIDBI focuses on providing financial assistance and promotion of small-scale industries. It is not related to agricultural marketing cooperatives.
3. NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India): NAFED is indeed the apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India. It facilitates the marketing of agricultural produce by coordinating the activities of various agricultural marketing cooperatives across the country.
4. AGMARK (Agmarknet): AGMARK refers to the certification of agricultural products under the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, but it is not the apex organization for marketing cooperatives.
5. NACM (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing): There is no specific organization known as NACM related to marketing cooperatives in India.

Conclusion: The correct answer is option (3) NAFED. NAFED plays a crucial role in coordinating and promoting the activities of agricultural marketing cooperatives in India, thereby acting as the apex organization for this sector.

10 Which of the following Indian sheep breeds is known for producing superior quality carpet wool?

(1) Balangiri

(2) Malpura

(3) Sonadi

(4) Chokla

(5) Bharat Merino

Correct Answer: (4) Chokla

Explanation:

1. Balangiri: Balangiri sheep are native to Odisha and are primarily raised for meat production. They are not known for producing carpet wool.
2. Malpura: Malpura sheep are found in Rajasthan and are valued for both meat and wool production. However, they are not specifically known for producing carpet wool.
3. Sonadi: Sonadi sheep are native to Rajasthan and Gujarat and are primarily raised for meat and wool. They are not specifically known for carpet wool.
4. Chokla: Chokla sheep are indigenous to Rajasthan and are renowned for producing superior quality carpet wool. Their wool is considered to be of excellent quality for making carpets and rugs.
5. Bharat Merino: Bharat Merino is a crossbreed developed in India primarily for improved wool production. While they produce good quality wool, they are not specifically renowned for carpet wool like Chokla sheep.

Conclusion: The correct answer is option (4) Chokla. Chokla sheep breed, native to Rajasthan, is known for producing superior quality carpet wool, which is highly valued in the carpet industry for its texture and durability.

11. The finest and most popular variety of Mandarin oranges is:-

(1) Clementine

(2) Encore

(4) Maltese

(5) Satsuma

(3) Mediterranean

Correct Answer: (1) Clementine

Explanation:

1. Clementine: Clementines are a popular variety of Mandarin oranges known for their sweet and juicy segments, easy-to-peel skin, and lack of seeds (or very few seeds). They are widely enjoyed as a snack and are often used in salads and desserts.
2. Encore: Encore is not a widely recognized variety of Mandarin oranges. It is not commonly associated with Mandarin oranges in general.
3. Mediterranean: Mediterranean is not a specific variety of Mandarin oranges. The term “Mediterranean” might refer to the region rather than a specific cultivar.
4. Maltese: Maltese oranges are another type of citrus but are not typically considered among the finest and most popular varieties of Mandarin oranges.
5. Satsuma: Satsuma oranges are a distinct variety of Mandarin oranges known for their loose skin, easy peeling, and sweet-tart flavor. While popular, Clementines are generally considered finer and more popular than Satsumas in terms of global consumption.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (1) Clementine. Clementines are renowned for their excellent flavor, seedless nature, and ease of peeling, making them one of the finest and most popular varieties of Mandarin oranges worldwide.

12. Back Heart and Hollow Heart in potatoes occur due to: –

(1) Environmental conditions

(2) Overuse of fertilizers

(3) Rodents

(4) Bacterial infection

(5) Nutrient deficiency

Correct Answer: (1) Environmental conditions

Explanation:

1. Environmental conditions: Back Heart and Hollow Heart in potatoes are physiological disorders that occur due to irregular growth and development, often influenced by environmental factors such as sudden changes in temperature, moisture stress, and inconsistent water supply. These conditions disrupt the uniform growth of tubers, leading to internal defects like Back Heart (darkened and discolored internal tissue) and Hollow Heart (hollow cavities inside the tuber).
2. Overuse of fertilizers: While overuse of fertilizers can lead to nutrient imbalances and affect overall potato plant health, it is not specifically linked to the occurrence of Back Heart and Hollow Heart.
3. Rodents: Rodents can damage potato crops by feeding on tubers, but they do not cause the internal defects characteristic of Back Heart and Hollow Heart.
4. Bacterial infection: Bacterial infections can cause diseases in potatoes, such as soft rot or bacterial wilt, but they do not typically result in the specific internal defects of Back Heart and Hollow Heart.
5. Nutrient deficiency: Nutrient deficiencies can lead to various disorders in plants, but Back Heart and Hollow Heart are not directly caused by nutrient deficiencies.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (1) Environmental conditions. Back Heart and Hollow Heart in potatoes are physiological disorders influenced by environmental factors affecting tuber growth and development, resulting in internal defects in the potatoes.Bottom of Form

13 Which seed rate should be adopted for maize crops grown for fodder purposes?

(1) 20 kg per hectare

(2) 8 kg per hectare

(3) 25 kg per hectare

(4)12 kg per hectare

(5) 50 kg per hectare

Correct Answer: (5) 50 kg per hectare

Explanation:

1. 20 kg per hectare: This seed rate is lower and may not provide sufficient plant density for maize crops grown for fodder purposes, where higher biomass production is desired.
2. 8 kg per hectare: This seed rate is even lower and would result in very sparse plant density, which is inadequate for achieving optimal fodder yield.
3. 25 kg per hectare: While higher than the previous options, 25 kg per hectare may still not provide enough plants per hectare to maximize fodder production.
4. 12 kg per hectare: Similar to option 2, this seed rate is too low for adequate plant density required for fodder production.
5. 50 kg per hectare: This is the correct answer. Maize crops grown for fodder purposes typically require higher plant density to maximize biomass production. A seed rate of 50 kg per hectare ensures sufficient plant population to achieve high fodder yield per unit area.

Conclusion: The correct answer is option (5) 50 kg per hectare. This seed rate is suitable for maize crops grown for fodder purposes, ensuring optimal plant density and thereby maximizing fodder yield per hectare.

14. The publisher of ‘Indian Journal of Fertilizers’ is : –

(1) NAFED

(2) ICAR

(3) NABARD

(4) FAI

(5) Department of Fertilizers, Union Ministry of

Chemicals & Fertilizers

Correct Answer: (4) FAI (Fertiliser Association of India)

Explanation:

1. NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India): NAFED deals with marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce, not with publishing journals related to fertilizers.
2. ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research): ICAR is responsible for coordinating agricultural research and education in India, but it does not specifically publish the ‘Indian Journal of Fertilizers’.
3. NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development): NABARD provides financial and developmental support to agriculture and rural sectors, but it is not involved in publishing journals related to fertilizers.
4. FAI (Fertiliser Association of India): FAI is the correct answer. It represents the interests of the fertilizer industry in India and publishes the ‘Indian Journal of Fertilizers’ to disseminate research and information related to fertilizers and agriculture.
5. Department of Fertilizers, Union Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers: While the Department of Fertilizers plays a regulatory and policy-making role in the fertilizer sector, it does not publish journals. Its focus is on policy formulation and implementation related to fertilizers.

Conclusion: The correct publisher of the ‘Indian Journal of Fertilizers’ is option (4) FAI (Fertiliser Association of India). They publish this journal to promote knowledge and advancements in the field of fertilizers and agriculture in India.

15. No Till Planter is used for :-

(1) Growing crops in mountainous regions

(2) Preventing soil erosion

(3) Growing crops in waterlogged regions

(4) Growing crops in barren and dry regions

(5) All of these

Correct Answer: (5) All of these

Explanation:

1. Growing crops in mountainous regions: No Till Planters can be used in mountainous regions where conventional tillage may be difficult or impractical. They help in reducing soil disturbance and maintaining soil structure in steep slopes.
2. Preventing soil erosion: By minimizing soil disturbance, No Till Planters help in preventing soil erosion. They keep the soil covered with crop residues, reducing the impact of rain and wind on exposed soil.
3. Growing crops in waterlogged regions: In waterlogged regions, traditional tillage can worsen soil compaction and drainage issues. No Till Planters preserve soil structure and allow better water infiltration and drainage, making them suitable for such conditions.
4. Growing crops in barren and dry regions: No Till Planters conserve soil moisture and improve soil health in dry and barren regions. They enhance water retention and promote better plant growth without disturbing the fragile soil structure.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (5) All of these. No Till Planters are versatile tools that can be used in various agricultural settings to promote sustainable farming practices, conserve soil health, and improve crop productivity under different environmental conditions.Bottom of Form

16 What should be the spacing for standard variety of apple tree?

(1) 5-10 feet

(2) 10-15 feet

(3) 15-20 feet

(4) 20-30 feet

(5) 30-40 feet16 What should be the spacing for standard variety of apple tree?

Correct Answer: (4) 20-30 feet

Explanation:

1. 5-10 feet: This spacing range is too narrow for standard apple trees. It is more suitable for dwarf or semi-dwarf apple trees, which are planted closer together to control tree size and facilitate management.
2. 10-15 feet: This spacing is also more suitable for dwarf or semi-dwarf apple trees, not for standard varieties which require more space for their larger size.
3. 15-20 feet: While closer to the correct range, this spacing might still be too close for standard apple trees, especially considering their mature size and the need for adequate airflow and sunlight penetration.
4. 20-30 feet: This is generally the recommended spacing for standard apple trees. It allows enough room for the tree to reach its full size, facilitates proper sunlight exposure, and helps prevent overcrowding which can lead to disease and poor fruit quality.
5. 30-40 feet: This spacing is wider than typically necessary for standard apple trees and may result in underutilization of space unless there are specific reasons such as particularly vigorous rootstocks or local conditions that require such spacing.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (4) 20-30 feet. This spacing range provides adequate room for standard apple trees to grow and develop properly, ensuring optimal fruit production and overall tree health.

17 AGMARK standards do not cover quality guidelines for which of the following commodities?

(1) Pulses

(3) Cereals

(2) Vermicelli

(4) Essential Oils

(5) None of these

Correct Answer: (4) Essential Oils

Explanation:

1. Pulses: AGMARK standards include guidelines for various pulses to ensure quality and authenticity in the market.
2. Vermicelli: AGMARK standards also cover products like vermicelli, providing guidelines for their production and quality.
3. Cereals: Cereals are covered under AGMARK standards, ensuring that they meet specific quality criteria.
4. Essential Oils: Essential oils are not covered under AGMARK standards. While there may be other regulations and standards for essential oils, they are not specifically included in the AGMARK guidelines.
5. None of these: This option would imply that AGMARK covers all mentioned commodities, but since essential oils are not covered, this option is incorrect.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (4) Essential Oils. AGMARK standards do not include quality guidelines specifically for essential oils, unlike for pulses, vermicelli, and cereals, which are all covered under AGMARK regulations.

18 Which state has the largest area and production of potato in India?

(1) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Andhra Pradesh

(2) Maharashtra

(4) Bihar

(5) Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer: (1) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation:

1. Uttar Pradesh: Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of potatoes in India both in terms of area under cultivation and total production. The favorable climate and soil conditions in regions like Agra, Meerut, and Kanpur contribute significantly to potato cultivation in the state.
2. Maharashtra: Maharashtra does cultivate potatoes, but it does not surpass Uttar Pradesh in terms of total area or production.
3. Andhra Pradesh: Andhra Pradesh also cultivates potatoes, but its production is not as high as in Uttar Pradesh.
4. Bihar: Bihar has substantial potato cultivation, but it ranks lower compared to Uttar Pradesh in terms of overall production.
5. Madhya Pradesh: Madhya Pradesh is also a significant producer of potatoes in India, but it does not surpass Uttar Pradesh in terms of area under cultivation and total production.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (1) Uttar Pradesh. It holds the largest area under cultivation and highest production of potatoes in India, making it the leading state for potato cultivation in the country.

19. Which of the following is the manufacturer of Mitsubishi Shakti Tillers?

(1) JK Satoh Agricultural Machinery Ltd.

(2) VST Tillers

(3) B.D.J. International

(4) Shaktiman Farm Machinery

(5) Mahindra Tillers

Correct Answer: (1) JK Satoh Agricultural Machinery Ltd.

Explanation:

1. JK Satoh Agricultural Machinery Ltd.: This company manufactures Mitsubishi Shakti Tillers under license from Mitsubishi Heavy Industries of Japan. They are well-known for producing a range of tillers and agricultural machinery.
2. VST Tillers: VST Tillers manufactures a different line of tillers under their own brand name, primarily focusing on small and medium-sized tillers for Indian agricultural needs.
3. D.J. International: B.D.J. International is not associated with the manufacturing of Mitsubishi Shakti Tillers.
4. Shaktiman Farm Machinery: Shaktiman Farm Machinery produces a variety of agricultural equipment including seed drills, cultivators, and harvesters, but they do not manufacture Mitsubishi Shakti Tillers.
5. Mahindra Tillers: Mahindra Tillers is also a manufacturer of agricultural machinery, but they do not produce Mitsubishi Shakti Tillers.

Conclusion:

The correct manufacturer of Mitsubishi Shakti Tillers is option (1) JK Satoh Agricultural Machinery Ltd. They hold the license to manufacture and distribute Mitsubishi Shakti Tillers in India, catering to the agricultural machinery needs of farmers across the country.

20 Which mango variety yields on an average 16 t/ha and about 1600 plants can be accommodated in one hectare?

(1) Amrapali

(2) Ratna

(3) Mallika (4) Neelam

(5) Anmol

Answer: (3) Mallika

Explanation:

• Mallika is a hybrid mango variety known for its high yield potential. It is capable of yielding around 16 tonnes per hectare under favorable conditions.
• Mango plantations typically accommodate around 1600 plants per hectare when spaced correctly.
• Therefore, Mallika fits both criteria mentioned in the question: high yield potential and suitable plant density per hectare.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (3) Mallika. It matches the description of yielding around 16 t/ha and accommodating about 1600 plants per hectare.

21 Dieback in citrus and cracking of apple is due to the deficiency of :-

(1) Zinc

(2) Copper

(3) Iron

(4) Sulphur

(5) Boron

Correct Answer: (5) Boron

Explanation:

1. Zinc: Zinc deficiency can cause rosetting and chlorosis in leaves, but it is not typically associated with dieback in citrus or cracking of apples.
2. Copper: Copper deficiency can lead to leaf curling and dieback in some plants, but it is not commonly linked to dieback in citrus or apple cracking.
3. Iron: Iron deficiency causes chlorosis in young leaves, but it does not directly cause dieback or cracking symptoms.
4. Sulphur: Sulphur deficiency can cause yellowing of leaves, but it is not typically associated with dieback or cracking in citrus or apples.
5. Boron: Boron deficiency is known to cause dieback in citrus trees, where branches progressively die back from the tips towards the trunk. In apples, boron deficiency can lead to cracking of fruits, especially during periods of rapid growth.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (5) Boron. Boron deficiency is associated with dieback in citrus trees and cracking of apples, making it crucial for maintaining healthy growth and fruit quality in these crops.

22 Vasantrao Naik award is given by ICAR for research applications in :-

(1) Dryland agriculture

(2) Horticulture

(3) Dairy fanning

(5) Fish farming

(4) Aquaculture

Correct Answer: (1) Dryland agriculture

Explanation:

1. Dryland agriculture: This category focuses on agricultural practices and innovations tailored for regions with limited water availability, such as arid and semi-arid areas. The Vasantrao Naik Award specifically recognizes research achievements and applications that enhance productivity, sustainability, and resilience in dryland agriculture.
2. Horticulture: While ICAR does recognize achievements in horticulture through other awards and programs, the Vasantrao Naik Award is not specifically dedicated to horticulture.
3. Dairy farming: Awards related to dairy farming and dairy technology are distinct from the Vasantrao Naik Award, which is primarily oriented towards agricultural research and development.
4. Aquaculture and Fish farming: These are fields related to aquatic agriculture and fisheries, which are also not the focus of the Vasantrao Naik Award.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (1) Dryland agriculture. The Vasantrao Naik Award is prestigious in recognizing contributions to advancing agricultural practices in dryland regions, crucial for sustainable food production in challenging environments.

23 Conversion factor for conversation of organic carbon to organic matter is usually taken as :-

(1) 0.45

(4) 1.72

(2) 0.91

(5) 2.04

(3) 1.36

Correct Answer: (4) 1.72

Explanation:

• The conversion factor of 1.72 is used to estimate the total organic matter content from the measured organic carbon content in soil.
• This factor is based on the assumption that organic matter typically contains about 58% carbon. Therefore, the formula used is: Organic Matter (OM) = Organic Carbon (OC) × 1.72
• The calculation is derived from the approximate content of carbon in organic matter, which is typically around 58%. To convert this to a multiplication factor, we use 100/58, which approximately equals 1.72.
• This conversion factor is widely used in soil science for practical purposes to estimate the amount of organic matter present in the soil based on its organic carbon content.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (4) 1.72. This factor is essential for converting organic carbon measurements into estimates of total organic matter in soil analysis.

24. Which of the following is used for primary tillage?

(1) Ploughs

(4) Rollers

(2) Tractor

(3) Planks

(5) Harrows

Correct Answer: (1) Ploughs

Explanation:

1. Ploughs: Ploughs are the primary tools used for primary tillage. They break and turn over the soil, preparing it for planting by loosening it and incorporating organic matter. This helps to improve soil structure, aeration, and water infiltration.
2. Tractor: While tractors are essential for pulling various tillage implements, they are not a tillage tool themselves. They provide the power needed for tillage operations but are not used directly for tilling the soil.
3. Planks: Planks are used for secondary tillage operations to level the soil and break up smaller clods after primary tillage has been completed.
4. Rollers: Rollers are also used for secondary tillage to compact the soil surface and break up small clods, ensuring a firm seedbed for planting.
5. Harrows: Harrows are typically used for secondary tillage. They smooth and refine the soil after primary tillage has been performed by the ploughs, creating a finer seedbed.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (1) Ploughs. They are specifically designed for primary tillage, which involves the initial soil breaking and turning to prepare the field for subsequent agricultural practices.

25 The pH value of alkali soil is :-

(1) 0

(2) 3

(3) 5

(4) 7

(5) 8

Correct Answer: (5) 8

Explanation:

1. 0: A pH of 0 is extremely acidic and is not characteristic of any natural soil.
2. 3: A pH of 3 indicates a very acidic soil, which is characteristic of acid soils, not alkali soils.
3. 5: A pH of 5 is moderately acidic and is not typical of alkali soils.
4. 7: A pH of 7 is neutral, which means it is neither acidic nor alkaline.
5. 8: A pH of 8 is mildly alkaline, which is characteristic of alkali soils. Alkali soils typically have a pH value ranging from 7.5 to 9.5 or even higher in some cases.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (5) 8. Alkali soils have a pH value that is greater than 7, indicating their alkaline nature.

26 Indian Institute of Pulses Research is located at

(1) Chandigarh

(2) Kanpur

(3) Bhopal

(4) Jodhpur

(5) Karnal

Correct Answer: (2) Kanpur

Explanation:

• Chandigarh: This is not the location of the Indian Institute of Pulses Research.
• Kanpur: The IIPR is located in Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh. It is the leading institute for research on pulses in India and works on improving the productivity and sustainability of pulse crops.
• Jodhpur: This city hosts other agricultural research institutions but not the Indian Institute of Pulses Research.
• Karnal: Karnal is known for institutions like the National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI), but not for the IIPR.
• Bhopal: Bhopal also hosts various agricultural institutions, but it is not the location of the IIPR.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (2) Kanpur. The Indian Institute of Pulses Research is located in Kanpur, where it plays a crucial role in the research and development of pulse crops in India.

27 In India, micro propagation in fruit crops is most

common and popular in :-

(1) Guava

(4) Mango

(2) Apple

(3) Banana

(5) Jackfruit

Correct Answer: (3) Banana

Explanation:

1. Guava: While micropropagation can be used for guava, it is not the most common or popular fruit crop for this technique in India.
2. Apple: Apple micropropagation is practiced, but it is more prevalent in countries with temperate climates.
3. Banana: Banana is the most commonly and widely micropropagated fruit crop in India. This technique is extensively used for producing disease-free and uniform planting material, which helps in improving yields and maintaining the quality of banana crops.
4. Mango: Micropropagation is used for mango, but it is more challenging and less common compared to banana.
5. Jackfruit: Jackfruit can be propagated through tissue culture, but it is not as popular as banana for micropropagation in India.

Conclusion: The correct answer is option (3) Banana. Micropropagation is most common and popular in banana cultivation in India due to its effectiveness in producing large numbers of disease-free, uniform plants.

28 Which of the following onion varieties is suitable

for Kharif crop?

(1) Bhima Shweta

(2) Bhima Super

(3) Bhima Red

(4) Both 1 and 3

(5) All of these

Correct Answer: (5) All of these

Explanation:

1. Bhima Shweta: This variety is known to be suitable for the Kharif season. It has a good tolerance to the monsoon conditions prevalent during this period.
2. Bhima Super: This variety is also cultivated during the Kharif season and has been developed to perform well under the specific conditions of this growing season.
3. Bhima Red: Like Bhima Shweta, Bhima Red is another variety that is well-suited for Kharif cultivation. It performs well in the rainy season and is a popular choice among farmers.
4. Both 1 and 3: While Bhima Shweta and Bhima Red are indeed suitable for Kharif, this option excludes Bhima Super, which is also appropriate for Kharif.
5. All of these: Considering that Bhima Shweta, Bhima Super, and Bhima Red are all mentioned as suitable for the Kharif season, the correct answer includes all the mentioned varieties.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (5) All of these. Bhima Shweta, Bhima Super, and Bhima Red are all suitable onion varieties for the Kharif crop.

29 Trichogramma are : –

(1) Mutant variety of wheat

(2) Biopesticide

(3) A variety of onion that grows well in dryland regions

(4) Genetically modified form of cotton

(5) A fungal pest variety

Correct Answer: (2) Biopesticide

Explanation:

1. Mutant variety of wheat: Trichogramma is not related to wheat; it is not a mutant variety of any crop.
2. Biopesticide: Trichogramma is a genus of minute wasps that are widely used as biological control agents. They are natural enemies of many insect pests. Trichogramma species parasitize the eggs of pests, such as moths and butterflies, preventing the pests from hatching and causing damage to crops. Therefore, they are used as biopesticides to control pest populations in an environmentally friendly manner.
3. A variety of onion that grows well in dryland regions: Trichogramma is not a variety of onion. It is an insect used for pest control.
4. Genetically modified form of cotton: Trichogramma is not related to cotton; it is not a genetically modified organism.
5. A fungal pest variety: Trichogramma is not a fungal pest; it is an insect beneficial for biological pest control.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (2) Biopesticide. Trichogramma are beneficial insects used in agriculture to control pest populations through biological means, making them an effective and environmentally friendly biopesticide.

30. Pramalini, Vikram and Chakradhar are varieties of :-

(1) Papaya

(2) Buffalo

(4) Guava

(5) Goat

(3) Lime

Correct Answer: (2) Buffalo

Explanation:

1. Papaya: These names are not known varieties of papaya.
2. Buffalo: Pramalini, Vikram, and Chakradhar are indeed names of buffalo breeds in India.
3. Lime: These names do not correspond to known lime varieties.
4. Guava: These are not varieties of guava.
5. Goat: These names are not recognized as goat breeds.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (2) Buffalo. Pramalini, Vikram, and Chakradhar are recognized as buffalo varieties.

31. To get maximum yield, the spacing of banana plantation for Dwarf Cavendish/Robusta varities is :-

(1) 1.5 x 1.5

(2) 2.1 x 2.1

(3) 1.8 x 3.6

(4) 0.9 x 0.9

(5) 1.8 x 1.8

Correct Answer: (5) 1.8 x 1.8 meters

Explanation:

1. 5 x 1.5 meters: This spacing may be too dense for optimal growth and yield of Dwarf Cavendish/Robusta varieties, potentially leading to competition for resources among the plants.
2. 1 x 2.1 meters: This spacing is typically used for larger banana varieties, and it may result in underutilization of space for dwarf varieties like Cavendish/Robusta.
3. 8 x 3.6 meters: This wider spacing is generally used for larger, taller varieties of bananas, allowing for more light penetration and airflow but may not maximize yield per unit area for dwarf varieties.
4. 9 x 0.9 meters: This spacing is too close and would likely lead to overcrowding, poor air circulation, increased disease pressure, and reduced yields.
5. 8 x 1.8 meters: This spacing is recommended for Dwarf Cavendish/Robusta varieties as it provides an optimal balance between plant density and resource availability. It allows enough space for each plant to grow and develop fully, ensuring maximum yield while making efficient use of the available area.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (5) 1.8 x 1.8 meters. This spacing is suitable for Dwarf Cavendish/Robusta banana varieties to achieve maximum yield by ensuring adequate space for growth and minimizing competition among plants.

32. What is the ideal time for planting the unrooted cuttings of grapes directly in the field?

(1) March

(2) June

(3) August

(4) October

(4) December

The ideal time for planting unrooted cuttings of grapes directly in the field depends on the climate and growing conditions of the region. In general, grapevines are planted during the dormant season when temperatures are cooler and rainfall is moderate. Based on typical grapevine planting practices:

Correct Answer: (4) October

Explanation:

1. March: In some regions with mild winters, March can be suitable for planting grapes. However, planting in October allows the vines to establish roots before the onset of winter.
2. June: June can be too late in many regions, as grapevines prefer to establish roots before the summer heat sets in.
3. August: August is generally too late for planting grape cuttings, as it may not allow sufficient time for root establishment before winter.
4. October: October is considered ideal for planting grape cuttings in many regions. During this time, temperatures are cooler, which encourages root growth without the stress of high summer temperatures. The soil is still warm enough for good root development before the onset of winter.
5. December: December is typically too late for planting grape cuttings in most regions, as it may coincide with cold weather that can affect root establishment.

Conclusion: The correct answer is option (4) October. This timing allows grape cuttings to establish well-developed roots before winter, setting the stage for healthy growth and production in the following seasons.

33 Which of the following is/are the advantages of

practicing drip irrigation?

(1) Reduction of weed

(2) Reduction in soil salinity

(3) Reduction in soil erosion

(4) Both 1 and 3

(5) All of these

Correct Answer: (5) All of these

1. Reduction of weed:
   • Drip irrigation delivers water directly to the root zone of plants through a system of tubes or hoses with emitters. This targeted watering keeps the soil surface dry, which reduces the germination and growth of weed seeds that require moist conditions to thrive. Compared to flood irrigation where the entire soil surface is wetted, drip irrigation significantly reduces the competition from weeds, thereby lowering the need for herbicides and manual weeding.
2. Reduction in soil salinity:
   • Drip irrigation applies water precisely and in controlled amounts directly to the root zone of plants. This method minimizes surface evaporation and deep percolation of water beyond the root zone. In regions where water contains dissolved salts (common in arid and semi-arid areas), excessive irrigation can lead to salt buildup in the soil, affecting plant growth. Drip irrigation helps in maintaining optimal soil moisture levels without leaching salts into the root zone, thereby reducing soil salinity over time.
3. Reduction in soil erosion:
   • Drip irrigation systems deliver water slowly and evenly to the soil surface or directly to the root zone of plants. This controlled application minimizes surface runoff and prevents soil erosion that occurs with conventional irrigation methods like sprinklers or flood irrigation. By maintaining a consistent soil moisture level and reducing surface disturbance, drip irrigation helps in preserving soil structure and stability, especially on sloped lands prone to erosion.

Explanation of other options:

4. Option (1) Reduction of weed:
   • This option focuses specifically on the reduction of weed growth, which is indeed a significant advantage of drip irrigation. By keeping the soil surface dry and delivering water only where it is needed (at the plant roots), drip irrigation effectively suppresses weed growth compared to other irrigation methods.
5. Option (2) Reduction in soil salinity:
   • This option addresses the ability of drip irrigation to reduce soil salinity, which occurs due to the controlled application of water. Drip irrigation prevents excessive leaching of salts into the root zone by delivering water precisely to the plant roots, thereby helping to maintain soil health and fertility.
6. Option (3) Reduction in soil erosion:
   • This option highlights another important benefit of drip irrigation. By minimizing surface runoff and maintaining soil structure, drip irrigation reduces soil erosion. This advantage is crucial for maintaining sustainable agricultural practices and preventing environmental degradation.

Conclusion:

The correct answer, option (5) All of these, encapsulates all the advantages of practicing drip irrigation: reduction of weed growth, reduction in soil salinity, and reduction in soil erosion. Drip irrigation is recognized for its efficiency in water use, environmental sustainability, and promotion of healthier soil conditions, making it a preferred choice in modern agriculture.

34. Chausa, Dasheri, Langra varieties of mango are :-

available from

(1) February-March

(2) March-April

(3) May-June

(5) August-September

(4) June-JulyTop of Form

Correct Answer: (4) June-July

Explanation:

1. February-March: During this period, mangoes are generally not available as it is usually before the mango season starts.
2. March-April: This period might see early varieties of mangoes in some regions, but Chausa, Dasheri, and Langra varieties typically ripen later.
3. May-June: Some early varieties might start appearing in May, but Chausa, Dasheri, and Langra are still not available widely during this time.
4. June-July: This period corresponds to the peak season for Chausa, Dasheri, and Langra mangoes in India. These varieties are known for ripening and being available from June through July.
5. August-September: By August and September, the season for Chausa, Dasheri, and Langra mangoes is typically over, as they are earlier varieties.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (4) June-July. Chausa, Dasheri, and Langra varieties of mango are available during the months of June and July in India, which is their peak harvesting and availability period.

35. Chemical delinting of cottonseed can be done with

(1) Ammonia

(2) Sulphuric acid

(3) Calcium carbonate

(4) Methyl alcohol

(5) Sulphur dioxide

Correct Answer: (2) Sulphuric acid

Explanation:

1. Ammonia: Ammonia is not typically used for delinting cottonseed. It is more commonly used in fertilizers and certain industrial processes.
2. Sulphuric acid: This is the correct answer. Sulphuric acid is commonly used for chemical delinting of cottonseed. It effectively removes the fuzzy fibers (lint) from the seeds, preparing them for further processing.
3. Calcium carbonate: Calcium carbonate is not used for delinting cottonseed. It is primarily used in agriculture as a soil amendment and in various industrial applications.
4. Methyl alcohol: Methyl alcohol (methanol) is not used for delinting cottonseed. It is primarily used as a solvent, fuel, and in chemical synthesis.
5. Sulphur dioxide: Sulphur dioxide is not commonly used for delinting cottonseed. It is used in various industrial processes and as a preservative in food and wine.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (2) Sulphuric acid. It is widely used in the agricultural industry for delinting cottonseed, efficiently removing the lint to prepare the seeds for further processing and use in various applications.

36. Cost of growing crops per hectare is known as :-

(1) Cost of production

(2) Marginal Cost

(3) Total Cost

(5) Equilibrium Cost

(4) Average Cost

Correct Answer: (1) Cost of production

Explanation:

1. Cost of production: This term encompasses all expenses incurred in the process of growing crops, including costs of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, labor, irrigation, machinery use, land rent, and other inputs necessary for cultivation. It is the total expenditure required to produce a crop over a specific area, usually expressed per hectare or per acre.
2. Marginal Cost: This refers to the additional cost incurred when producing one more unit of a good or service. It is not specifically related to the total cost of growing crops per hectare.
3. Total Cost: Total cost includes all costs incurred in production, but it doesn’t specifically refer to the cost per hectare of growing crops.
4. Average Cost: Average cost is the total cost divided by the quantity of output produced. It gives a per-unit cost rather than a total cost per hectare.
5. Equilibrium Cost: This term typically refers to the price at which supply equals demand in a market. It is not directly related to the cost of production per hectare.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (1) Cost of production. This term specifically denotes the total expenses incurred in growing crops per hectare, encompassing all costs associated with cultivation and production.

37 Milk of which of the following indigenous buffalo

breeds has high content of buttermilk fat?

(1) Murrah

(2) Jersey

(4) Kankrej

(3) Holstein

(5) Khillari

Correct Answer: (1) Murrah

Explanation:

1. Murrah: The Murrah buffalo breed, native to India, is renowned for its high milk yield and high butterfat content. The milk of Murrah buffaloes typically contains a higher percentage of fat compared to other buffalo breeds, making it desirable for dairy products like ghee and butter.
2. Jersey: Jerseys are a breed of dairy cattle known for their high butterfat content in milk. They are not buffalo breeds but are known for their high-quality milk in terms of fat content.
3. Holstein: Holsteins are another breed of dairy cattle known for their high milk production, but they are not buffalo breeds and their milk generally has a lower fat content compared to buffalo milk.
4. Kankrej: Kankrej is a breed of cattle found in India, primarily used for draught purposes rather than dairy production.
5. Khillari: Khillari is a breed of cattle found in Maharashtra, primarily used for draught purposes and not specifically known for high butterfat content in milk.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (1) Murrah. Murrah buffaloes are prized for their milk, which is not only abundant but also has a high content of butterfat, making it valuable for dairy processing.

38. The most popular grape variety in India is :-

(1) Bangalore Blue

(2) Arka Krishna

(3) Thompson seedless

(4) Bhokri

(5) Gulabl

Correct Answer: (3) Thompson Seedless

Explanation:

1. Bangalore Blue: This is a variety of grape popular in certain regions of India, known for its deep blue-black color and suitability for table and wine production. However, it is not the most popular grape variety overall in India.
2. Arka Krishna: Arka Krishna is a newer variety developed by Indian agricultural research institutions. It is known for its disease resistance and adaptability, but it is not as widely cultivated as Thompson Seedless.
3. Thompson Seedless: This is the correct answer. Thompson Seedless grapes are the most widely grown and popular variety in India. They are favored for their sweet taste, seedlessness, and versatility in both fresh consumption and raisin production. They are also known as “Sultanina” in other parts of the world.
4. Bhokri: Bhokri is a local variety of grape found in certain regions of India. It is not as widely cultivated or as popular as Thompson Seedless.
5. Gulabi: Gulabi grapes are known for their pinkish color and are found in some regions of India. They are not as widely grown or as popular as Thompson Seedless.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is option (3) Thompson Seedless. It is the most popular grape variety in India due to its taste, seedlessness, and suitability for various uses in the food processing industry.

39. Internal necrosis in mango and internal cork in apple is due to the deficiency of :-

(1) Potassium

(2) Chlorine

(4) Sulphur

(5) Calcium

(3) Boron

Explanation:

Internal necrosis in mango and internal cork in apple are both physiological disorders caused by boron deficiency.

Boron is a crucial micronutrient for plant growth. It plays a significant role in cell wall formation and the stability and functioning of cell membranes. Deficiency of boron affects the translocation of sugars and other carbohydrates, leading to the breakdown of cell walls, and resulting in necrotic symptoms.

• Internal necrosis in mango: This disorder is characterized by the browning and dying of internal tissues, leading to the degradation of fruit quality. Boron deficiency disrupts cell wall structure and metabolism, causing tissue death internally.
• Internal cork in apple: This condition leads to the formation of corky tissue within the apple, making the fruit unmarketable. The internal cork is the result of boron deficiency leading to the disintegration of the cell walls and formation of cork-like tissue inside the fruit.

Explanation of Other Options:

1. Potassium: Deficiency in potassium typically results in symptoms like leaf yellowing (chlorosis), scorching, and poor fruit quality, but it does not specifically cause internal necrosis in mango or internal cork in apple.
2. Chlorine: Chlorine is essential for osmosis and ionic balance. Deficiency symptoms include wilting, chlorosis, and reduced root growth, but it does not cause internal necrosis or cork formation in fruits.
3. Sulphur: Sulphur is important for protein synthesis and chlorophyll formation. Deficiency usually manifests as uniform chlorosis of younger leaves, stunted growth, and delayed maturity, but not internal necrosis or cork.
4. Calcium: While calcium deficiency can lead to disorders like blossom end rot in tomatoes and bitter pit in apples, it does not cause internal necrosis in mango or internal cork in apple. Calcium deficiency typically affects cell wall stability and membrane function but in different ways compared to boron deficiency.

In summary, boron deficiency specifically leads to the physiological disorders of internal necrosis in mango and internal cork in apple due to its crucial role in cell wall stability and integrity.

4o Which of the following is a technique for reclamation of salline sodic soils?

(1) GIS

(4) FIRB

(2) SRI

(3) HFT

(5) All of these

Correct Answer: (5) All of these.

Explanation:

To understand why the correct answer is (5) All of these, let’s examine each technique mentioned and their relevance to the reclamation of saline-sodic soils:

1. GIS (Geographic Information System):
   • Explanation: GIS is a technology used for mapping and analyzing spatial data. It can be used in the reclamation of saline-sodic soils to identify affected areas, monitor soil salinity levels, plan reclamation activities, and assess the effectiveness of these activities over time.
2. SRI (System of Rice Intensification):
   • Explanation: SRI is a rice cultivation method that optimizes the use of water, soil, and nutrients to improve rice yields. In the context of saline-sodic soil reclamation, SRI can help improve soil structure and reduce salinity by promoting better root growth and enhancing microbial activity in the soil.
3. HFT (High-Frequency Technology):
   • Explanation: HFT can refer to various advanced technologies used for soil management, including soil moisture sensors, salinity sensors, and other precision agriculture tools. These technologies help monitor soil conditions and manage irrigation more effectively, which is crucial for reclaiming saline-sodic soils.
4. FIRB (Furrow Irrigated Raised Bed planting system):
   • Explanation: FIRB is a method of planting crops on raised beds with furrows in between for irrigation. This technique improves soil aeration, reduces waterlogging, and helps manage salinity by facilitating better drainage and preventing the accumulation of salts in the root zone.

Summary:

All the techniques mentioned (GIS, SRI, HFT, and FIRB) can be relevant to the reclamation of saline-sodic soils either directly or indirectly. Therefore, the correct answer is (5) All of these.

41. Which of the following is an example of sorosis type of fruit?

(1) Pear

(2) Jackfruit

(3) Pomegranate

(4) Mango

(5) Orange

Correct Answer: (2) Jackfruit.

Explanation:

A sorosis is a type of multiple fruit that develops from the entire inflorescence (cluster of flowers) where each flower contributes to the formation of a single fruit. Here’s how each option fits:

1. Pear: Pear is a simple fruit that develops from a single ovary of a single flower. It is not formed by the fusion of multiple flowers, so it is not an example of sorosis.
2. Jackfruit: Jackfruit is an example of a sorosis type of fruit. It forms from the fusion of multiple flowers on a single inflorescence, resulting in a large, composite fruit.
3. Pomegranate: Pomegranate is also a simple fruit that develops from a single ovary of a single flower. It does not develop from the fusion of multiple flowers, so it is not a sorosis type of fruit.
4. Mango: Mango is a drupe fruit that develops from a single ovary of a single flower. Like pomegranate and pear, it does not fit the sorosis type of fruit.
5. Orange: Orange is a hesperidium, a type of berry with a tough rind, developing from a single ovary of a single flower. It does not form from the fusion of multiple flowers and hence is not an example of sorosis.

Summary:

Jackfruit (option 2) is the correct example of a sorosis type of fruit because it forms from the fusion of multiple flowers on a single inflorescence, creating a large, composite fruit.

42. The plant indicator which shows the presence of gold in soil is

(1) Vallozia Candida

(2) Astragalus species

(3) Viscaria alpina

(5) Salsola nitrate

(4) Eriogoniurin ovalifolium

Correct Answer: (2) Astragalus species.

Explanation:

Astragalus species are known as indicator plants for gold in soil. These plants are part of a group of species referred to as “hyperaccumulators,” which have the ability to absorb and accumulate high concentrations of metals or minerals from the soil into their tissues.

• Indicator plants like certain Astragalus species can be useful in identifying mineral deposits such as gold. When these plants are found in an area, particularly in specific geological formations or soil types, it can suggest the presence of gold or other minerals.

Explanation of Incorrect Options:

1. Vallozia Candida:
   • This plant is not typically associated with indicating the presence of gold in soil. It belongs to a different ecological niche and does not possess the hyperaccumulator characteristics of Astragalus species.
2. Viscaria alpina:
   • Viscaria alpina is not known for its ability to indicate gold in soil. It is a flowering plant found in alpine regions and has different ecological roles compared to indicator plants for minerals.
3. Salsola nitrate:
   • Salsola nitrate is not associated with indicating gold in soil. It is a species of tumbleweed that grows in arid regions and is not known for hyperaccumulation of metals or minerals.
4. Eriogoniurin ovalifolium:
   • This species does not indicate the presence of gold in soil. It is a plant found in mountainous regions and is not known for hyperaccumulation properties like Astragalus species.

Summary:

Astragalus species, particularly some members of this genus, are recognized for their ability to accumulate gold in their tissues and are used as indicators for the presence of gold in soil. Therefore, option (2) Astragalus species is the correct answer.

Top of Form

43. The plant indicator which shows the presence of gold in soil is :-

(1) Vallozia Candida

(2) Astragalus species

(3) Viscaria alpina

(5) Salsola nitrate

(4) Eriogoniurin ovalifolium

Correct Answer: (2) Astragalus species.

Explanation:

Astragalus species are known as indicator plants for gold in soil. These plants are part of a group of species referred to as “hyperaccumulators,” which have the ability to absorb and accumulate high concentrations of metals or minerals from the soil into their tissues.

• Indicator plants like certain Astragalus species can be useful in identifying mineral deposits such as gold. When these plants are found in an area, particularly in specific geological formations or soil types, it can suggest the presence of gold or other minerals.

Explanation of Other Options:

1. Vallozia Candida:
   • This plant is not typically associated with indicating the presence of gold in soil. It belongs to a different ecological niche and does not possess the hyperaccumulator characteristics of Astragalus species.
2. Viscaria alpina:
   • Viscaria alpina is not known for its ability to indicate gold in soil. It is a flowering plant found in alpine regions and has different ecological roles compared to indicator plants for minerals.
3. Salsola nitrate:
   • Salsola nitrate is not associated with indicating gold in soil. It is a species of tumbleweed that grows in arid regions and is not known for hyperaccumulation of metals or minerals.
4. Eriogoniurin ovalifolium:
   • This species does not indicate the presence of gold in soil. It is a plant found in mountainous regions and is not known for hyperaccumulation properties like Astragalus species.

Summary:

Astragalus species, particularly some members of this genus, are recognized for their ability to accumulate gold in their tissues and are used as indicators for the presence of gold in soil. Therefore, option (2) Astragalus species is the correct answer.

44. Algae which is used in monitoring the water quality of estuaries is :-

(1) Ulva

(2) Stigeoclonium

(3) Duniella teritolecta

(4) Microscopium

(5) Cyclotella cryptic

Correct Answer: (5) cyclotella cryptica.

Explanation:

Cyclotella cryptica is a type of diatom that is commonly used in monitoring the water quality of estuaries. Diatoms, including Cyclotella species, are single-celled algae with silica cell walls that are sensitive to changes in water quality parameters such as nutrient levels, pH, and pollution.

• Monitoring water quality: Diatoms like Cyclotella cryptica are used as bioindicators because their abundance, diversity, and health reflect the overall ecological condition of aquatic environments, including estuaries.

Explanation of Other Options:

1. Ulva:
   • Ulva, also known as sea lettuce, is a green macroalga. While it can indicate nutrient pollution in aquatic environments, it is not typically used for monitoring estuarine water quality compared to microalgae like diatoms.
2. Stigeoclonium:
   • Stigeoclonium is a filamentous green alga. It is not commonly used as an indicator for monitoring water quality in estuaries compared to diatoms like Cyclotella cryptica.
3. Duniella teritolecta:
   • Duniella teritolecta is a marine green alga. It is not widely recognized as a bioindicator for estuarine water quality monitoring compared to diatoms.
4. Microscopium:
   • Microscopium is not an algae species. It may refer to a constellation or microscope, but it is not relevant to algae used in water quality monitoring.

Summary:

Cyclotella cryptica (option 5) is chosen for its role as a diatom species that is commonly used to monitor water quality in estuaries due to its sensitivity to environmental changes and its ecological significance as a bioindicator.

45. Which of the following commodity groups has maximum share in terms of grade standard notified under Aginark?

(1) Food grain and allied products

(2) Spices and condiments

(3) Oil seeds

(4) Fruits and Vegetables

(5) Vegetable Oils and Fats

Correct Answer: (1) Food grain and allied products.

Explanation:

Aginark (Agricultural Marketing Information Network) standardizes and notifies grade standards for various agricultural commodities in India. Among the options provided, food grain and allied products have the maximum share in terms of grade standards notified under Aginark.

• Food grain and allied products include cereals (such as rice, wheat), pulses (like lentils, chickpeas), and other staple food items. These commodities are essential in agriculture and constitute a significant portion of the grade standards established by Aginark.

Explanation of Other Options:

1. Spices and condiments: While important, spices and condiments do not have as many grade standards notified compared to food grain and allied products.
2. Oil seeds: Oil seeds, such as soybean, mustard, and sesame, have specific grade standards but generally do not outnumber food grain and allied products in terms of notification under Aginark.
3. Fruits and Vegetables: While diverse, fruits and vegetables may have varying grade standards, but collectively they do not surpass food grains and allied products in terms of notification under Aginark.
4. Vegetable Oils and Fats: This category includes oils like mustard oil, palm oil, and fats. Grade standards exist for these commodities, but their share is typically less compared to food grain and allied products.

Summary:

Food grain and allied products (option 1) have the maximum share in terms of grade standards notified under Aginark, reflecting their importance in Indian agriculture and the economy.

46 Where is the National Academy of Agricultural Research and Management (NAARM) located?

(1) Jodhpur

(2) Hyderabad (3) Pune

(4) Lucknow

(5) KurukshetraTop of Form

Correct Answer: Hyderabad, Telangana

Explanation of Other Option

Jodhpur: Jodhpur is a city in Rajasthan known for its historical significance and desert landscape. It is not the location of NAARM.

Hyderabad: Hyderabad is the correct answer. It is a major city in Telangana and serves as the location for NAARM. Hyderabad is known for its contributions to technology, education, and research, including agriculture.

Pune: Pune is a city in Maharashtra known for its educational institutions and historical landmarks. It is not the location of NAARM.

Lucknow: Lucknow is the capital city of Uttar Pradesh, known for its cultural heritage and historical monuments. It is not the location of NAARM.

Kurukshetra: Kurukshetra is a city in Haryana known for its religious and historical significance in Indian mythology. It is not the location of NAARM.

Summary:

NAARM is located in Hyderabad, Telangana, and it plays a crucial role in advancing agricultural research, management education, and capacity building in India under the auspices of ICAR.

47 Kabuli Chamatkar and Udai are chickpea varieties from :-

(1) Bihar

(2) Haryana

(3) Madhya Pradesh

(4) Rajasthan

(5) Punjab.

Correct Answer: Hyderabad, Telangana

Explanation:

Kabuli Chamatkar and Udai are popular varieties of chickpeas (Cicer arietinum) that are specifically cultivated in Rajasthan, India. Rajasthan is known for its diverse agricultural practices and production of various crops, including chickpeas.

Explanation of other option :-

Bihar: Bihar is a state in eastern India known for its rice production and other crops but not specifically for chickpea varieties like Kabuli Chamatkar and Udai.

Haryana: Haryana is known for its wheat and rice cultivation primarily. It does produce chickpeas, but Kabuli Chamatkar and Udai are not specifically associated with Haryana.

Madhya Pradesh: Madhya Pradesh is one of the largest producers of pulses in India, including chickpeas. However, Kabuli Chamatkar and Udai are not particularly linked to Madhya Pradesh.

Rajasthan: Rajasthan is the correct answer. It is known for the cultivation of Kabuli Chamatkar and Udai chickpea varieties, among other crops.

Punjab: Punjab is known for its wheat and rice production primarily. While it does grow chickpeas, Kabuli Chamatkar and Udai are not specifically associated with Punjab.

Summary:

Kabuli Chamatkar and Udai are chickpea varieties that originate from Rajasthan, making option (4) Rajasthan the correct answer.

48. The pungency (smell) in uninjured garlic is due to the presence of :-

(1) Allinase

(3) Memordicoside

(5) Words

(2) Propyl di-sulphide

(4) Sulphur oxalat

Correct Answer : (2) Propyl di-sulphide.

Explanation:

• Garlic contains sulfur compounds that are responsible for its characteristic pungent smell and taste.
• Propyl di-sulphide is one of these sulfur compounds found in garlic.
• When garlic cloves are crushed or cut, an enzyme called allinase converts another compound called alliin into propyl di-sulphide, along with other sulfur-containing compounds.
• These compounds are volatile, which means they can easily vaporize and produce the strong odor associated with garlic.

Explanation of other options:

1. Allinase: Allinase is the enzyme responsible for converting alliin to various sulfur compounds including propyl di-sulphide. It is not directly responsible for the pungency in uninjured garlic.
2. Memordicoside: Memordicoside is not related to garlic or its pungency. It seems to be a term not commonly associated with garlic or its biochemical components.
3. Sulphur oxalate: Sulphur oxalate is not a compound found in garlic. It seems to be a combination of sulfur and oxalate, which are not directly related to garlic’s pungency.
4. Words: This option does not make sense in the context of garlic’s biochemistry and pungency.

Summary:

The pungency in uninjured garlic is primarily due to the presence of propyl di-sulphide, a sulfur compound that gives garlic its characteristic smell and taste.

49 ‘Spongy tissue is a serious problem of which mango cultivator?

(1) Totapuri

(2) Langra

(4) Alphonso

(5) Chausa.

(3) Maid

Correct Answer: (4) Alphonso mango cultivar

Explanation :-

Totapuri: Totapuri mangoes are known for their distinct shape, size, and slightly pointed ends.

They are less prone to spongy tissue compared to Alphonso mangoes.

Totapuri mangoes are often used for processing into products like mango pulp and juice due to their firm texture and tangy flavor.

Langra: Langra mangoes are known for their unique flavor and are primarily grown in northern India.

Like Totapuri, Langra mangoes are less susceptible to spongy tissue compared to Alphonso.

They are preferred for their juicy and sweet taste and are often eaten fresh or used in desserts.

Alphonso: Alphonso mangoes, also known as Hapus, are highly prized for their rich flavor, aroma, and smooth texture.

They are more susceptible to spongy tissue compared to other mango varieties.

Spongy tissue in Alphonso mangoes can affect their marketability and consumer satisfaction due to the compromised eating quality.

Chausa: Chausa mangoes are famous for their sweetness and juicy pulp.

They are relatively less prone to spongy tissue compared to Alphonso.

Chausa mangoes are widely grown in northern India and are enjoyed fresh or used in desserts and beverages.

Maida: It seems there might be a confusion or typo with the option “Maida” as it is not typically associated with mango cultivars.

Maida generally refers to a type of flour used in baking and cooking, not a mango cultivar.

Summary: Among the options provided, Alphonso mangoes (option 4) are specifically known for their susceptibility to spongy tissue, which is a significant concern for growers and consumers. Other mango cultivars like Totapuri, Langra, and Chausa are less prone to this disorder, each having their own distinct qualities and preferences in terms of flavor, texture, and usage.

50 Which nutrient deficiency is responsible for Little leaf in mango and mottle leaf of citrus?

(1) Zinc

(2) Phosphorus

(3) Copper

(4) Magnesium

(5) lodine

Correct Answer: (4) Magnesium

Explanation:

• Little leaf in mango: This is a disorder characterized by the development of small, narrow, and chlorotic leaves. It occurs due to magnesium deficiency, which is essential for chlorophyll production and overall plant growth. Without sufficient magnesium, chlorophyll synthesis is impaired, leading to the characteristic symptoms of little leaf.
• Mottle leaf of citrus: This disorder results in mottled or blotchy yellowing of citrus leaves, which is also attributed to magnesium deficiency. Magnesium is crucial for photosynthesis and enzyme activation in plants. Its deficiency affects the production of chlorophyll and leads to the mottled appearance of leaves in citrus plants.

Explanation of Other Options:

1. Zinc: Zinc deficiency can cause chlorosis and stunted growth in plants but is not specifically associated with little leaf or mottle leaf symptoms in mango or citrus.
2. Phosphorus: Phosphorus deficiency can lead to dark green or purplish leaves, but it does not cause the specific symptoms of little leaf or mottle leaf in mango or citrus.
3. Copper: Copper deficiency can cause leaf tip dieback and chlorosis in plants but is not responsible for little leaf or mottle leaf symptoms seen in mango or citrus.
4. Iodine: Iodine is not typically considered a crucial nutrient for mango or citrus plants, and its deficiency does not cause little leaf or mottle leaf symptoms.

Summary:

Magnesium deficiency (option 4) is responsible for both little leaf in mango and mottle leaf in citrus. Ensuring adequate magnesium levels in soil and plant nutrition is essential to prevent and manage these disorders in mango and citrus cultivation.

IBPS AFO Mains previous year 2017 question paper

1. If a soil has pH 6.5 and this pH is lowered to pH 5.5, the acid content becomes times greater acidic?

(1) 100

(2) 0.1

(3) 10

(4) 50

(5) 1

Correct Answer: (3) 10 to answer this question, we need to understand the relationship between pH and the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution. The pH scale is logarithmic, meaning each whole pH value below 7 (neutral) is ten times more acidic than the next higher value.

Here is the step-by-step explanation:

1. pH Scale and Hydrogen Ion Concentration:
   • pH is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration [H+] [H^+][H+] in a solution.
   • The relationship is given by: pH=−log⁡[H+] \text{pH} = -\log [H^+]pH=−log[H+]
2. Change in pH:
   • The initial pH is 6.5, and it changes to 5.5.
   • The change in pH is 6.5−5.5=16.5 – 5.5 = 16.5−5.5=1.
3. Logarithmic Relationship:
   • A decrease of 1 pH unit means the hydrogen ion concentration increases by a factor of 101=1010^{1} = 10101=10.

Therefore, if the pH of the soil is lowered from 6.5 to 5.5, the acidity (hydrogen ion concentration) becomes 10 times greater.

Explanation of Other Options:

1. Option 1 (100):
   • This would imply that the hydrogen ion concentration increased by a factor of 100. This would be the case if the pH dropped by 2 units (e.g., from 6.5 to 4.5).
2. Option 2 (0.1):
   • This would imply that the hydrogen ion concentration decreased by a factor of 10. This would be the case if the pH increased by 1 unit (e.g., from 6.5 to 7.5).
3. Option 3 (10):
   • This is the correct option as explained above. A decrease of 1 pH unit results in a 10-fold increase in hydrogen ion concentration.
4. Option 4 (50):
   • This would imply a more complex change in pH, approximately between a change of 1.7 units (since 101.7≈5010^{1.7} \approx 50101.7≈50).

Conclusion:

The correct answer is:

(3) 10

When the pH of a soil is lowered from 6.5 to 5.5, the acid content (hydrogen ion concentration) becomes 10 times greater.

2 Which of the following is a disease causing pathogen in citrus group?

(1) Oidium Caricae

(2) Plasmopara Viticola

(3) Colletotrichum gloeosporioides

(4) Phytophthora parasitica

(5) Cercospora Sp.

Correct Answer: (4) Phytophthora parasitica

to determine which pathogen causes disease in the citrus group, let’s examine each of the options provided:

1. Oidium caricae:
   • This pathogen is known to cause powdery mildew in papaya (Carica papaya), not in citrus.
2. Plasmopara viticola:
   • This is the pathogen responsible for downy mildew in grapevines, not citrus.
3. Colletotrichum gloeosporioides:
   • This fungus causes anthracnose in a wide range of plants, including citrus. It is known to infect citrus fruits, causing black spots and decay.
4. Phytophthora parasitica:
   • This is a well-known pathogen causing Phytophthora root rot and gummosis in citrus. It is a significant disease-causing pathogen in the citrus group.
5. Cercospora sp.:
   • This genus includes various species causing leaf spot diseases in different plants, including citrus (e.g., Cercospora leaf spot in citrus).

Conclusion:

Both Colletotrichum gloeosporioides and Phytophthora parasitica are pathogens that can cause diseases in citrus. However, Phytophthora parasitica is more specifically recognized for causing severe diseases like root rot and gummosis in citrus, making it a prominent pathogen in the citrus group.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (4) Phytophthora parasitica

3 What is the pattern of assistance for women beneficiary for purchase of power lifter (8 H.P. and above) under Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanisation (SMAM)?

(1) 30%

(4) 60%

(2) 35%

(3) 50%

(5) No assistance

Correct Answer: (3) 50%

Explanation of Options:

1. 30%:
   • This is a common subsidy rate for general categories, but not for women under the SMAM scheme.
2. 35%:
   • Similar to the 30%, this is not the designated rate for women beneficiaries under SMAM.
3. 50%:
   • Women beneficiaries are provided with a 50% subsidy for purchasing power lifters (8 H.P. and above) under SMAM, making this the correct option.
4. 60%:
   • Although higher, the specified rate for women beneficiaries under SMAM is 50%.
5. No assistance:
   • This is incorrect as the scheme specifically provides subsidies to promote mechanization among women.

Conclusion:

Under the Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM), women beneficiaries are eligible for a 50% subsidy for the purchase of power lifters (8 H.P. and above). Therefore, the correct answer is: (3) 50%

4 What is the plant population in no./ha for long duration variety of rice crop?

(1) 47,620

(4) 5,00,000

(2) 44,444

(5) 85,555

(3) 3,33,000

Correct Answer: (2) 44,444 plants/ha%

To determine the plant population per hectare for long-duration varieties of rice, we need to consider the typical planting density and spacing guidelines used in rice cultivation. Rice plant populations can vary based on the cultivation method, variety, and specific agronomic practices. However, certain standard practices can be referred to for typical values.

Typical Plant Populations for Rice:

1. 47,620 plants/ha:
   • This plant population might correspond to a specific spacing not typically used for long-duration rice varieties.
2. 44,444 plants/ha:
   • This number corresponds to a spacing of about 15 cm x 15 cm, which is more commonly associated with short-duration or high-density planting.
3. 3,33,000 plants/ha:
   • This extremely high plant population does not match standard agronomic practices for any rice variety, including long-duration varieties.
4. 5,00,000 plants/ha:
   • This is an unrealistically high plant population for rice, not typically used in standard agricultural practices.
5. 85,555 plants/ha:
   • This corresponds to a spacing of about 11.7 cm x 11.7 cm, which is again on the denser side and not typical for long-duration rice varieties.

Given the standard practices and typical planting densities for long-duration rice varieties, the spacing and resulting plant population are often designed to allow for sufficient growth and resource allocation.

Typical Spacing for Long-Duration Rice Varieties:

• A common spacing is around 20 cm x 20 cm, which provides a balance between plant population and resource availability.

5. What is the premium amount as percentage of sum earned for commercial/ horticulture crops under weather based crop insurance scheme?

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

(5) 7

Correct Answer: (3) 5%

Explanation of Options:

1. 3%:
   • This is typically the premium rate for food crops and oilseeds during the Kharif season, not for commercial or horticulture crops.
2. 4%:
   • This is usually the premium rate for food crops and oilseeds during the Rabi season, not for commercial or horticulture crops.
3. 5%:
   • This is the standard premium rate for commercial and horticulture crops under the WBCIS.
4. 6%:
   • This is higher than the standard rate and not typically used for commercial or horticulture crops under WBCIS.
5. 7%:
   • This is also higher than the standard rate for commercial and horticulture crops under WBCIS.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is:

(3) 5%

The premium amount as a percentage of the sum insured for commercial and horticulture crops under the Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme (WBCIS) is typically 5%.

6 What is the aggregate loan limit from banking system for the category of food and agro processing under Ancillary Agriculture under priority sector lending?

(1) Rs. 250 crore

(2) Rs. 200 crore

(3) Rs. 500 crore

(4) Rs. 150 crore

(5) Rs. 100 crore

Correct Answer:(1) Rs. 250 crore

Explanation of Options:

1. 250 crore:
   • This is the correct limit as per the latest RBI guidelines for loans to food and agro-processing units under Ancillary Agriculture.
2. 200 crore:
   • This is not the specified limit under the current PSL guidelines for this category.
3. 500 crore:
   • This amount is not specified as the limit for food and agro-processing units under PSL.
4. 150 crore:
   • This is lower than the current specified limit.
5. 100 crore:
   • This is significantly lower than the actual limit under PSL for food and agro-processing units.

Conclusion:

The aggregate loan limit from the banking system for the category of food and agro-processing under Ancillary Agriculture under priority sector lending is:

• 250 crore

7 The water use efficiency in drip irrigation can go as high as :-

(2) 95%

(3) 75%

(5) 90%

(1) 85%

(4) 80%

Correct Answer: (5) 90%

Explanation of Options:

1. 85%:
   • While this is a high efficiency, drip irrigation systems can achieve even higher levels of WUE.
2. 95%:
   • This is a very high efficiency and might be achievable in specific conditions, but typically 90% is considered achievable under practical conditions.
3. 75%:
   • This is lower than typical efficiency achieved by drip irrigation.
4. 80%:
   • This is also lower than the efficiency typically achieved by drip irrigation systems.
5. 90%:
   • This is the correct answer. Drip irrigation systems can achieve water use efficiencies as high as 90%, making them one of the most efficient irrigation methods available.

Conclusion:

Therefore, the water use efficiency in drip irrigation can go as high as 90%.

8 Coconuts are harvested during various intervals in the year. What is the economic life of the coconut

palms?

(1) 25 years

(2) 35 years

(3) 45 years (4) 60 years

(5) 50 years

Correct Answer: (5) 35 Years

The economic life of coconut palms refers to the period during which the palms are productive and economically viable for harvesting coconuts. Coconut palms typically have a long productive life span under optimal conditions.

Economic Life of Coconut Palms:

1. 25 years: This is generally too short for the economic life of coconut palms. They typically produce coconuts for a longer duration.
2. 35 years: This is also relatively short for the economic life of coconut palms.
3. 45 years: This is a more reasonable estimate for the economic life of coconut palms. They can continue to produce coconuts effectively for several decades.
4. 60 years: While coconut palms can live for several decades, their peak productivity usually declines after around 45 years.
5. 50 years: This is also a plausible estimate for the economic life of coconut palms. They can remain productive and economically viable for this duration.

Conclusion:

The economic life of coconut palms is typically considered to be around 45 years to 50 years, depending on the specific growing conditions and management practices. Among the given options, the most appropriate answer is likely:

(3) 45 years

This represents a period during which coconut palms are productive and economically beneficial for harvesting coconuts.

9. What is the minimum amount of assistance under National Horticulture Mission (NHM) for adoption of organic farming?

(1) Rs. 7,000/ha

(3) Rs. 5,000/ha

(2) Rs. 10,000/ha

(4) Rs. 4,000/ha

(5) Rs. 6,000/ha

Correct Answer: (4) Rs. 4,000/ha

Minimum Amount of Assistance under NHM for Adoption of Organic Farming:

As per the guidelines of NHM, the minimum amount of assistance provided for adoption of organic farming is:

(4) Rs. 4,000/ha

Explanation of Options:

1. 7,000/ha:
   • This amount is higher than the minimum assistance provided under NHM for organic farming.
2. 10,000/ha:
   • This amount is higher than the minimum assistance provided under NHM for organic farming.
3. 5,000/ha:
   • This amount is also higher than the minimum assistance provided under NHM for organic farming.
4. 4,000/ha:
   • This is the correct answer. It represents the minimum amount of assistance under NHM for adoption of organic farming.
5. 6,000/ha:
   • This amount is higher than the minimum assistance provided under NHM for organic farming.

Conclusion:

Therefore, the minimum amount of assistance under the National Horticulture Mission (NHM) for adoption of organic farming is:

(4) Rs. 4,000/ha

10. What is the floor space required (sq. ft) per bird in brooder-cum-grower house (deep lifter system) in case of poultry layer and as per : –

(1) 0.5

(4) 0.25

(2) 0.8

(5) 0.7

(3) 1.0

Correct Answer: (2) 0.8 sq. ft

Floor Space Requirements for Brooder-Cum-Grower House (Deep Litter System) for Poultry Layers:

For the brooder-cum-grower house with deep litter system, the recommended floor space per bird for poultry layers is generally around 0.8 square feet per bird.

Explanation of Options:

1. 5 sq. ft:
   • This is lower than the standard requirement for layers and may not provide adequate space for their comfort and health.
2. 8 sq. ft:
   • This is the correct answer. It represents the recommended floor space per bird in brooder-cum-grower houses for poultry layers.
3. 0 sq. ft:
   • This is higher than typically required for layers and might lead to inefficient use of space.
4. 25 sq. ft:
   • This is too low and would not meet the space requirements necessary for poultry layers.
5. 7 sq. ft:
   • While closer, it is slightly lower than the generally recommended 0.8 sq. ft per bird.

Conclusion:

The correct floor space required per bird in a brooder-cum-grower house (deep litter system) for poultry layers is:

• 8 sq. ft

11. Which of the following is a disease causing pathogen in mango group?

(1) Plasmopara viticala

(2) Cercospora sp.

(3) Phytophthora Parasitica

(4) Colletotrichum gloeosporioides

(5) Oidium Carica

Correct Answer: (4) Colletotrichum gloeosporioides

To identify the disease-causing pathogen in mangoes among the options provided, let’s analyze each pathogen:

1. Plasmopara viticola:
   • This pathogen causes downy mildew in grapevines, not mangoes.
2. Cercospora sp.:
   • Various species of Cercospora cause leaf spot diseases in different plants, including mangoes.
3. Phytophthora parasitica:
   • This pathogen causes Phytophthora root rot and gummosis in various plants, but it is not typically associated with mango diseases.
4. Colletotrichum gloeosporioides:
   • This fungus is known to cause anthracnose in mangoes, which is a significant disease affecting mango fruit quality.
5. Oidium caricae:
   • This pathogen causes powdery mildew in papaya (Carica papaya), not mangoes.

Conclusion:

Among the options provided, the disease-causing pathogen in mangoes is:

12 There are different methods of seed sowing. Inserting a seed through a hole at a desired depth and covering the hole is known as :-

(1) Dibbing

(2) Transplanting

(3) Drill sowing

(4) Broadcasting

(5) Sowing behind the plough

Correct Answer: (1) Dibbing

The method of seed sowing described as “inserting a seed through a hole at a desired depth and covering the hole” is known as dibbing.

Explanation of Options:

1. Dibbing:
   • This method involves manually inserting seeds into the soil at a specific depth using a dibber or a similar tool. It is commonly used for sowing seeds of certain crops like vegetables or root crops.
2. Transplanting:
   • This involves planting seedlings that have been grown in a nursery or seedbed into their final location in the field.
3. Drill sowing:
   • This method involves sowing seeds in straight rows or drills created by a seed drill or manually.
4. Broadcasting:
   • Broadcasting involves scattering seeds uniformly over the soil surface without making holes or furrows.
5. Sowing behind the plough:
   • This refers to sowing seeds immediately after ploughing the field, typically by scattering them across the ploughed soil.

Conclusion:

The correct method described, where seeds are inserted through a hole at a desired depth and covered, is:

• Dibbing

13 in which year Imperial Council of Agricultural Research (presently Indian Council of Agricultural

Research (ICAR)) was established?

(1) 1955

(2) 1910

(3) 1961

(4) 1923

(5) 1945

Correct Answer: (4) 1923

The Imperial Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), which is presently known as the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), was established in the year:

(4) 1923

Explanation:

• The ICAR was established on July 16, 1929, during the British colonial period in India.
• It was set up to coordinate agricultural research and education in India.
• Over the years, ICAR has played a crucial role in promoting agricultural research, education, and extension services across the country.

Conclusion:

Therefore, the correct year of establishment of the Imperial Council of Agricultural Research (presently ICAR) is:

• 1923

14 What is the interest subvention amount payable by Govt. Of India for short term crop loans upto one year for timely repayment of loans?

(1) 5%

(2) 3%

(3) 6%

(4)4%

(5) 7%

Correct Answer: (2) 3%

Interest Subvention Amount for Timely Repayment:

As per the latest information available:

• The Government of India provides an interest subvention of 3% per annum for short-term crop loans up to one year for timely repayment.

Explanation of Options:

1. 5%:
   • This is higher than the current interest subvention rate provided by the Government of India.
2. 3%:
   • This is the correct answer. The Government of India provides an interest subvention of 3% for short-term crop loans up to one year for timely repayment.
3. 6%:
   • This is higher than the current interest subvention rate.
4. 4%:
   • This is also higher than the current interest subvention rate.
5. 7%:
   • This is significantly higher than the current interest subvention rate.

Conclusion:

Therefore, the interest subvention amount payable by the Government of India for short-term crop loans up to one year, for timely repayment of loans, is:

(2) 3%

15 What is the minimum temperature for growth of

rice in India?

(1) 14° C

(2) 19° C

(3) 28° C

(4) 30° C

(5) 25° C

Correct Answer: (1) 14° C

The minimum temperature required for the growth of rice, particularly during the germination and early growth stages, is critical for optimal growth and development of the crop.

Minimum Temperature for Growth of Rice:

Rice is a tropical and subtropical crop that requires relatively warm temperatures for its growth. The minimum temperature required for the growth of rice in India is:

(1) 14° C

Explanation:

1. 14° C:
   • This is the correct answer. Rice can germinate and grow at temperatures above 14° C, though higher temperatures are generally more favorable for its growth.
2. 19° C:
   • This temperature is slightly higher than the minimum required for rice growth.
3. 28° C:
   • This is a temperature range where rice grows well, but it is not the minimum required temperature.
4. 30° C:
   • This temperature is higher than the minimum required for rice growth.
5. 25° C:
   • While this is within the optimal range for rice growth, it is higher than the minimum temperature required.

Conclusion:

Therefore, the minimum temperature required for the growth of rice in India is:

(1) 14° C

16 Which of the following agro- climatic zones consists of subzones of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh?

(1) Western Himalayan Zone

(2) Upper Gangetic Planes zone

(3) Western Plateau and Hills Zone

(4) Lower Gangetic Planes Zone

(5) Eastern Himalayan Zone

Correct Answer: (1) Western Himalayan Zone

The agro-climatic zones in India are defined based on similar climatic conditions and are used for agricultural planning and development. To identify which zone consists of subzones from Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh, we need to understand the specific regions covered by each zone.

Agro-Climatic Zones and Their Coverage:

1. Western Himalayan Zone:
   • This zone covers the states of Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh primarily, along with parts of Uttarakhand.
2. Upper Gangetic Plains Zone:
   • This zone covers parts of Uttar Pradesh, particularly the upper regions of the Gangetic plains.
3. Western Plateau and Hills Zone:
   • This zone covers parts of Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Rajasthan, not including Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, or Uttar Pradesh.
4. Lower Gangetic Plains Zone:
   • This zone covers the lower regions of the Gangetic plains, primarily in Bihar and West Bengal.
5. Eastern Himalayan Zone:
   • This zone covers the northeastern states of India, such as Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, and parts of Sikkim and West Bengal.

Conclusion:

Based on the regions mentioned (Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh), the agro-climatic zone that consists of subzones from these states is:

(1) Western Himalayan Zone

This zone includes the subzones from Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and parts of Uttar Pradesh that share similar agro-climatic characteristics typical of the Western Himalayan region.

17 Which of the following soils are found in hills and foothill areas?

(1) Laterites and Laeteritic soils

(2) Black soil

(3) Desert soli

(4) Alluvial soil

(5) Red soil

Correct Answer: (1) Laterites and Lateritic soils

Soils found in hills and foothill areas vary depending on the geographical region and climate. Let’s analyze the options provided:

1. Laterites and Lateritic soils:
   • These soils are typically found in regions with high rainfall and high temperatures, often in tropical areas. They develop in areas with prolonged weathering of parent rocks.
2. Black soil:
   • Black soils, also known as Regur soils, are found in the Deccan Plateau region of India. They are characterized by their dark color and clay-rich nature.
3. Desert soil:
   • Desert soils are found in arid and semi-arid regions. They are characterized by low organic matter content and high salt content due to lack of leaching.
4. Alluvial soil:
   • Alluvial soils are found in plains and river valleys. They are fertile soils deposited by rivers and streams and are ideal for agriculture.
5. Red soil:
   • Red soils are commonly found in areas with a warm, humid climate. They are formed by weathering of ancient crystalline rocks and are generally acidic.

Analysis and Conclusion:

Among the options provided, the soils that are typically found in hills and foothill areas are:

(1) Laterites and Lateritic soils

Laterites and lateritic soils are often found in hilly and foothill regions where prolonged weathering of parent rocks has occurred, leading to the formation of these soils. They are characteristic of tropical and subtropical regions with moderate to high rainfall.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

• Laterites and Lateritic soils

18 Which state/union territory In India has maximum forest area out of the total geographical area of the State/Union Territory?

(1) Mizoram

(2) Madhya Pradesh

(3) Assam

(4) Andaman and Nicobar Is-land

(5) Himachal Pradesh

Correct Answer: (2) Madhya Pradesh

Determining the state or union territory in India with the maximum forest area relative to its total geographical area involves understanding the distribution of forest cover across different regions. Forest cover in India varies significantly due to diverse ecological and geographical factors.

Analyzing the Options:

1. Mizoram:
   • Mizoram is known for its dense forest cover, but it is a smaller state in terms of geographical area.
2. Madhya Pradesh:
   • Madhya Pradesh is one of the states with significant forest cover and a large geographical area.
3. Assam:
   • Assam also has substantial forest cover, particularly in its northeastern regions.
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
   • These islands have extensive forest cover, including tropical rainforests.
5. Himachal Pradesh:
   • Himachal Pradesh has forest cover spread across its mountainous terrain.

Determining the Answer:

Among the options provided, Madhya Pradesh stands out as having the largest forest area relative to its total geographical area compared to the other states and union territories listed.

Conclusion:Therefore, the state or union territory in India with the maximum forest area out of its total geographical area is:

• Madhya Pradesh

19 What is the maximum amount of assistance per pump set under National Food Security Mission

(NFSM) for purchase of pump?

(1) Rs. 20,000 or 40% of the cost whichever is less

(2) Rs. 15,000 or 20% of the cost whichever is less

(3) Rs. 10,000 or 50% of the cost whichever is less

(4) Rs. 15,000 or 50% of the cost whichever is less

(5) Rs. 25,000 or 60% of the cost whichever is less

Correct Answer: (1) Rs. 20,000 or 40% of the cost whichever is less

Under the National Food Security Mission (NFSM), assistance is provided for the purchase of pump sets to support agricultural activities. Let’s analyze the options provided:

Maximum Amount of Assistance per Pump Set under NFSM:

1. 20,000 or 40% of the cost whichever is less:
   • This means the assistance provided will be either Rs. 20,000 or 40% of the cost of the pump set, whichever is lower.
2. 15,000 or 20% of the cost whichever is less:
   • This means the assistance provided will be either Rs. 15,000 or 20% of the cost of the pump set, whichever is lower.
3. 10,000 or 50% of the cost whichever is less:
   • This means the assistance provided will be either Rs. 10,000 or 50% of the cost of the pump set, whichever is lower.
4. 15,000 or 50% of the cost whichever is less:
   • This means the assistance provided will be either Rs. 15,000 or 50% of the cost of the pump set, whichever is lower.
5. 25,000 or 60% of the cost whichever is less:
   • This means the assistance provided will be either Rs. 25,000 or 60% of the cost of the pump set, whichever is lower.

Conclusion:

The correct option that states the maximum amount of assistance per pump set under the National Food Security Mission (NFSM) for the purchase of a pump is:

(1) Rs. 20,000 or 40% of the cost whichever is less

This means that a farmer can receive assistance up to a maximum of Rs. 20,000 or 40% of the cost of the pump set, whichever amount is lower.

20 Which of the following crops is generally known as tropical crop?

(1) Pasture grasses

(2) Rice

(4) Wheat

(3) Coconut

(5) Barley

Correct Answer: (3) Coconut

Among the crops listed, the one that is generally known as a tropical crop, meaning it thrives in tropical climates characterized by high temperatures and ample rainfall, is Coconut.

Here’s a brief explanation for each crop listed:

1. Pasture grasses:
   • Pasture grasses can grow in a variety of climates and are not specifically categorized as tropical crops. They are used for grazing livestock in both temperate and tropical regions.
2. Rice:
   • Rice is predominantly grown in tropical and subtropical regions. It requires warm temperatures and high humidity, making it well-suited for tropical climates.
3. Coconut:
   • Coconut palms are iconic tropical plants that thrive in coastal regions with warm climates and high humidity. They are a key crop in many tropical countries.
4. Wheat:
   • Wheat is primarily grown in temperate regions with cooler climates. It is not typically considered a tropical crop.
5. Barley:
   • Similar to wheat, barley is grown in cooler climates and is not classified as a tropical crop.

Conclusion:

Therefore, among the options provided, the crop that is generally known as a tropical crop is:

(3) Coconut

Coconuts are well-suited to tropical climates and are cultivated extensively in tropical regions worldwide.

21 What is the depth of ploughing for deep rooted crops?

(1) 30-40 cm

(2) 5-10 cm

(3) 25-30 cm

(4) 10-20 cm

(5) 15-30 cm

Correct Answer: (1) 30-40 cm

The depth of ploughing for deep-rooted crops is an important factor in ensuring that the roots can penetrate the soil effectively to access nutrients and water. Let’s analyze the options provided:

1. 30-40 cm:
   • This depth range is suitable for deep-rooted crops, allowing their roots to penetrate deeper into the soil profile.
2. 5-10 cm:
   • This depth range is shallow and more suitable for shallow-rooted crops, not deep-rooted ones.
3. 25-30 cm:
   • This depth range is also suitable for deep-rooted crops, allowing sufficient soil penetration for root growth.
4. 10-20 cm:
   • This depth range is shallow to moderate and is generally used for crops with medium-depth roots, not deep-rooted crops.
5. 15-30 cm:
   • This depth range varies, but the lower end (15 cm) may not be sufficient for deep-rooted crops, depending on the specific crop and soil conditions.

Conclusion:

The depth of ploughing for deep-rooted crops typically ranges between 25-30 cm (options 1 and 3), allowing ample soil penetration for deep-rooted crops to develop their root systems effectively.

However, if we strictly consider the option that emphasizes a suitable depth for most deep-rooted crops:

(1) 30-40 cm

This range ensures that deep-rooted crops can access nutrients and moisture deeper in the soil profile, promoting healthy growth and development.

22. Which of the following crops is generally known as temperate crop?

(1) Pasture grasses

(2) Rice

(4) Cotton

(3) Coconut

(5) Wheat

Correct Answer: (5) Wheat

The term “temperate crop” refers to crops that are typically grown in temperate regions, which are characterized by moderate temperatures and distinct seasons. Let’s analyze each crop to determine which one is generally known as a temperate crop:

1. Pasture grasses:
   • Pasture grasses can be grown in various climates, including temperate regions, but they are not specifically categorized as temperate crops.
2. Rice:
   • Rice is primarily grown in tropical and subtropical regions, not temperate climates.
3. Coconut:
   • Coconut palms thrive in tropical climates and are not considered temperate crops.
4. Cotton:
   • Cotton is grown in both tropical and temperate regions, but it is often associated with temperate climates where it is cultivated as a fiber crop.
5. Wheat:
   • Wheat is a staple crop in temperate regions around the world. It requires cooler temperatures for optimal growth and is well-suited to temperate climates.

Conclusion:

Among the options provided, the crop that is generally known as a temperate crop, meaning it thrives in temperate climates characterized by distinct seasons and moderate temperatures, is:

• Wheat Wheat is widely cultivated in temperate regions where it is an important staple food crop. Therefore, wheat is the correct answer as a temperate crop.

23. What is the optimum temperature for growth of wheat in India?

(1) 14° C

(4) 30° C

(2) 10° C

(3) 25° C

(5) 20° C

Correct Answer: (5) 20° C

The optimum temperature for the growth of wheat in India varies slightly depending on the stage of growth, but generally, wheat thrives in cooler temperatures compared to other cereal crops. Let’s analyze the options provided:

1. 14° C:
   • This temperature is on the lower side and might be suitable for early growth stages or cooler regions, but not optimum throughout the growth cycle.
2. 10° C:
   • This temperature is quite low and may not be suitable for optimal wheat growth, as it would likely be too cold for sustained growth.
3. 25° C:
   • This temperature is on the higher side and could potentially be too warm for wheat growth, especially during certain stages where cooler temperatures are preferred.
4. 30° C:
   • This temperature is too high for wheat growth. High temperatures can adversely affect wheat development, especially during flowering and grain filling stages.
5. 20° C:
   • This temperature is closer to the optimum range for wheat growth. It provides a favorable environment for wheat cultivation across different stages of growth.

Optimum Temperature for Wheat Growth:

In India, the optimum temperature range for the growth of wheat is generally considered to be around 20° C. This temperature range is conducive to the various growth stages of wheat, from germination to maturity.

Conclusion:

Therefore, among the options provided, the optimum temperature for the growth of wheat in India is:

• 20° C

24. Which of the following is a major nutrient requiring larger countries compared to other nutrients for human body?

(1) Copper

(2) Boron

(3) Zinc

(4) Iron

(5) Potassium

Correct Answer: (4) Iron

Among the nutrients listed, iron is considered a major nutrient required in larger quantities by the human body compared to the others. Here’s a brief explanation of each nutrient:

1. Copper:
   • Copper is an essential trace mineral that plays a role in various physiological processes, but it is needed in smaller quantities compared to major nutrients.
2. Boron:
   • Boron is a trace element that is important for bone health and other functions, but it is required in smaller amounts compared to major nutrients.
3. Zinc:
   • Zinc is an essential mineral involved in numerous biological processes, and while it is important, it is needed in smaller quantities compared to major nutrients.
4. Iron:
   • Iron is a critical mineral required for the production of hemoglobin in red blood cells, which carries oxygen throughout the body. Iron deficiency is common globally, indicating its significant requirement in larger quantities by the human body.
5. Potassium:
   • Potassium is an electrolyte and mineral that is important for muscle function, nerve function, and maintaining fluid balance in the body. It is essential but generally required in smaller quantities compared to major nutrients like iron.

Conclusion:

Therefore, among the nutrients listed, the one requiring larger quantities for the human body compared to others is:

(4) Iron

Iron is crucial for oxygen transport in the blood and is needed in relatively larger amounts to maintain adequate hemoglobin levels and overall health.

25 What is the target for lending under Agriculture sector by domestic scheduled commercial banks as percentage of adjusted net bank, credit or balance sheet exposure, whichever is higher, as per RBI guidelines?

(1) 10%

(4) 18%

(2) 25%

(5) 30%

(3) 40

Correct Answer: (4) 18%

The target for lending under the agriculture sector by domestic scheduled commercial banks in India, as a percentage of adjusted net bank credit (ANBC) or balance sheet exposure, whichever is higher, is governed by RBI guidelines to ensure adequate credit flow to the agriculture sector. Let’s analyze the options provided:

1. 10%
2. 25%
3. 40%
4. 18%
5. 30%

RBI Guidelines for Priority Sector Lending (Agriculture):

According to the latest RBI guidelines, domestic scheduled commercial banks are required to achieve the following targets for lending to the agriculture sector:

• 18% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or
• 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) in case of foreign banks with 20 branches or more, and in case of other banks, 32% of ANBC

Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) includes outstanding credit to agriculture and allied activities, and the higher of ANBC or balance sheet exposure determines the target percentage.

Conclusion:

Therefore, the correct answer regarding the target for lending under the agriculture sector by domestic scheduled commercial banks as a percentage of adjusted net bank credit or balance sheet exposure (whichever is higher) is:

(4) 18%

This indicates that banks are required to allocate a minimum of 18% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) towards lending to the agriculture sector to meet priority sector lending requirements set by the RBI.

26. What is the depth of ploughing for shallow rooted crops?

(1) 10-20 cm

(4) 5-10 cm

(2) 25-30 cm

(3) 30-40 cm

(5) 15-30 cm

Correct Answer: (1) 10-20 cm

Shallow-rooted crops typically do not require deep soil penetration for their roots to access nutrients and moisture. Let’s analyze the options provided for the depth of ploughing suitable for shallow-rooted crops:

1. 10-20 cm:
   • This depth range is generally suitable for shallow-rooted crops. It allows adequate soil preparation without going too deep for these types of crops.
2. 25-30 cm:
   • This depth range is deeper than what is typically required for shallow-rooted crops and may not be ideal as they do not need to reach such depths.
3. 30-40 cm:
   • This depth range is even deeper and is generally more suitable for deep-rooted crops, not shallow-rooted ones.
4. 5-10 cm:
   • This depth range is very shallow and may not provide sufficient soil preparation for some crops, but it could be suitable for very shallow-rooted crops.
5. 15-30 cm:
   • This depth range varies, but the lower end (15 cm) is closer to what shallow-rooted crops might require.

Conclusion:

Based on the options provided, the depth of ploughing that is generally suitable for shallow-rooted crops is:

(1) 10-20 cm

This depth range ensures adequate soil preparation while not going too deep, which is suitable for crops with shallow root systems. Therefore, option (1) is the correct answer for shallow-rooted crops.

27 Mouldboard plough is primary stage equipment for land preparation. What is the capacity (ha/tray) of a tractor mounted mouldboard plough?

(1) 1.0

(4) 2.0

(2) 1.75

(5) 0.5

(3) 0.75

Correct Answer: (4) 2.0 ha/day

The correct capacity of a tractor-mounted mouldboard plough is indeed around 2.0 ha/day (hectares per day). This reflects the efficiency of a tractor-mounted mouldboard plough under ideal conditions.

Here’s an explanation for each option in terms of the context of ploughing capacity:

1. 0 ha/day:
   • This could be a realistic capacity for smaller or less efficient setups, but it is not typically the upper range for tractor-mounted ploughs.
2. 75 ha/day:
   • This is closer to the capacity of a larger setup but still not the highest efficiency.
3. 75 ha/day:
   • This represents a smaller capacity, likely for small-scale or less efficient equipment.
4. 0 ha/day:
   • This is the correct answer for the capacity of a tractor-mounted mouldboard plough. Under ideal conditions, a well-equipped and efficiently operated tractor can cover up to 2 hectares per day.
5. 5 ha/day:
   • This is very low and typically would be indicative of very small-scale operations or significantly less efficient equipment.

Conclusion:

The capacity of a tractor-mounted mouldboard plough is approximately:

(4) 2.0 ha/day

This means that under typical conditions, the plough can effectively prepare about 2 hectares of land in a day.

28 What is the target for lending to small and marginal farmers within the target for agriculture sector by domestic scheduled commercial banks by March 2017 Bank credit or credit equivalent amount of off-balance sheet exposure, whichever is higher, as per RBI guidelines?

(1)8%

(4) 15%

(2) 10%

(5) 30%

(3) 25%

Correct Answer: (4) 15%

Explanation of Options:

1. 8%:
   • This is below the typical sub-target for lending to small and marginal farmers, as per the guidelines.
2. 10%:
   • While a reasonable guess, this is also lower than the specific sub-target established by the RBI for small and marginal farmers.
3. 25%:
   • This is significantly higher than the sub-target for small and marginal farmers, though it could represent an overall target for priority sector lending.
4. 15%:
   • This is the correct sub-target set by the RBI for lending to small and marginal farmers.
5. 30%:
   • This would be an unusually high sub-target specifically for small and marginal farmers.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is:

(4) 15%

29 What is the maximum amount of assistance under National Horticulture Mission (NHM) for small and marginal farmers?

(1) Rs. 15.00 lakhs/ha

(3) Rs. 10 lakhs/ha

(5) Rs. 20.00 lakhs/ha

(2) Rs. 18.00 lakhs/ha

(4) Rs. 25 lakhs/ha

Correct Answer: (5) Rs. 20.00 lakhs/ha

To find the correct answer for the maximum amount of assistance under the National Horticulture Mission (NHM) for small and marginal farmers, let’s analyze each option and provide a detailed explanation.

Options Analysis:

1. 15.00 lakhs/ha:
   • This is a significant amount and is generally associated with substantial support but is not the highest level of assistance provided under NHM/MIDH.
2. 18.00 lakhs/ha:
   • This amount is also considerable and could be relevant for certain high-value interventions, but it is still not the maximum assistance offered.
3. 10 lakhs/ha:
   • This amount is moderate and typically covers a wide range of horticultural activities but does not represent the maximum level of assistance available for high-cost interventions.
4. 25 lakhs/ha:
   • This amount exceeds the typical assistance levels provided under NHM/MIDH, even for the most intensive activities, and is likely higher than the standard maximum support.
5. 20.00 lakhs/ha:
   • This represents a substantial amount of financial assistance and aligns with the highest levels typically provided under NHM/MIDH for activities requiring significant investment, such as protected cultivation or other high-tech horticulture projects.

Detailed Explanation:

• Protected Cultivation: Activities like building polyhouses or greenhouses require substantial investment. NHM/MIDH provides significant support for these activities to encourage adoption among small and marginal farmers.
• High-Tech Horticulture: These projects often involve high initial costs but can lead to increased productivity and better quality produce.

Conclusion:

Given the context of NHM/MIDH support levels, the correct answer is:

(5) Rs. 20.00 lakhs/ha

This amount represents the upper limit of financial assistance typically offered for high-cost, high-value horticultural interventions aimed at small and marginal farmers.

Summary of Other Options:

1. 15.00 lakhs/ha: Significant support but not the maximum.
2. 18.00 lakhs/ha: High level of assistance but not the top limit.
3. 10 lakhs/ha: Moderate support for various horticultural activities.
4. 25 lakhs/ha: Exceeds typical maximum support under NHM/MIDH.
5. 20.00 lakhs/ha: The highest level of financial assistance typically provided for high-cost interventions.

This detailed analysis supports the conclusion that Rs. 20.00 lakhs/ha is the maximum amount of assistance under the NHM for small and marginal farmers.

30 Which of the following soils are found most

extensively in India?

(1) Laterite soil (2) Alluvial soil (3) Red soil

(4) Black soil (5) Desert soil

Correct Answer: (2) Alluvial soil

Analysis of Soil Types in India:

India’s diverse geography and climate lead to a variety of soil types, each prevalent in different regions and supporting various agricultural activities.

1. Laterite Soil:
   • Found in regions with heavy rainfall and high temperature.
   • Common in the Western Ghats, parts of Orissa, West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh.
   • Not the most extensive soil type in India.
2. Alluvial Soil:
   • Found in river basins and plains, particularly in the Indo-Gangetic plains including the states of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and parts of Assam.
   • Covers the largest area in India and is considered the most fertile soil, supporting extensive agriculture.
3. Red Soil:
   • Found in areas with low rainfall and rich in iron content, giving it a reddish color.
   • Common in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and parts of Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Maharashtra.
   • Significant in certain regions but not the most extensive.
4. Black Soil:
   • Also known as Regur soil or cotton soil.
   • Found mainly in the Deccan plateau, covering Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and parts of Tamil Nadu.
   • Suitable for cotton cultivation but not the most extensive soil type.
5. Desert Soil:
   • Found in arid and semi-arid regions, especially in Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat.
   • Covers a significant area but not as extensive as alluvial soil.

Conclusion:

The most extensively found soil in India is:

(2) Alluvial soil

Alluvial soil covers the largest area in India, particularly in the fertile river plains and deltas, making it the most widespread and agriculturally important soil type in the country.

Explanation of Other Options:

1. Laterite Soil:
   • Limited to specific high rainfall regions and not the most extensive.
2. Alluvial Soil:
   • Correct answer. It covers the largest area, especially in the Indo-Gangetic plains and other river valleys.
3. Red Soil:
   • Significant in some states but not as widespread as alluvial soil.
4. Black Soil:
   • Extensive in the Deccan plateau but not the most widespread compared to alluvial soil.
5. Desert Soil:
   • Limited to arid regions like Rajasthan and not as extensive.

Therefore, Alluvial soil is the correct answer due to its widespread occurrence and extensive coverage in India.

31 Which of the following nutrient plays an important role to activate various enzymes and also plays a major role in transport of water?

(1) Nitrogen (2) Phosphorus (3) Copper

(4) Calcium

(5) Potassium

Correct Answer: (5) Potassium

To determine which nutrient plays an important role in activating various enzymes and also plays a major role in the transport of water, let’s analyze the functions of the nutrients listed:

1. Nitrogen:
   • Essential for the synthesis of amino acids, proteins, and chlorophyll.
   • Important for plant growth but not specifically for enzyme activation or water transport.
2. Phosphorus:
   • Crucial for energy transfer in plants (ATP).
   • Involved in the formation of DNA and RNA.
   • Not primarily involved in enzyme activation or water transport.
3. Copper:
   • Involved in photosynthesis, respiration, and the formation of lignin in cell walls.
   • Functions as a component of some enzymes but does not play a major role in water transport.
4. Calcium:
   • Important for cell wall structure and stability.
   • Plays a role in cell division and growth.
   • Involved in the movement of nutrients and water within the plant but not primarily for enzyme activation.
5. Potassium:
   • Plays a crucial role in activating over 60 enzymes involved in various plant processes.
   • Regulates the opening and closing of stomata, which controls water uptake and loss.
   • Helps in the transport of water and nutrients within the plant.